|
Statutory Instrument
2001 No. 2128
The Air Navigation (Overseas Territories) Order 2001
Crown Copyright 2001
Statutory Instruments printed from this website are printed under the
superintendence and authority of the Controller of HMSO being
the Queen's
Printer of Acts of Parliament.
The legislation contained on this web site is subject to Crown
Copyright protection. It may be reproduced free of charge provided
that it is
reproduced accurately and that the source and copyright status of the
material is made evident to users.
It should be noted that the right to reproduce the text of Statutory
Instruments does not extend to the Queen's Printer imprints
which should be
removed from any copies of the Statutory Instrument which are issued or made
available to the public. This
includes reproduction of the Statutory
Instrument on the Internet and on intranet sites. The Royal Arms may be
reproduced only
where they are an integral part of the original document.
The text of this Internet version of the Statutory Instrument which is
published by the Queen's Printer of Acts of Parliament has
been prepared to
reflect the text as it was Made. A print version is also available and is
published by The Stationery Office
Limited as the The Air Navigation
(Overseas Territories) Order 2001, ISBN 0 11 029568 4. The print version
may be purchased by clicking here.
Braille copies of this Statutory Instrument can also be purchased at the same
price as the print edition by contacting TSO
Customer Services on 0870 600
5522 or e-mail:customer.services@tso.co.uk.
Further information about the publication of legislation on this
website can be found by referring to the Frequently Asked Questions.
To ensure fast access over slow connections, large documents have been
segmented into "chunks". Where you see a "continue"
button at the bottom of the page of text, this indicates that there is
another chunk of text available.
STATUTORY
INSTRUMENTS
2001
No. 2128
CIVIL
AVIATION
The
Air Navigation (Overseas Territories) Order 2001
|
|
Made
|
9th June 2001
|
|
|
|
Laid before Parliament
|
20th June
2001
|
|
|
|
Coming into force
|
16th July
2001
|
|
ARRANGEMENT OF ORDER
Citation, Commencement and Revocation
PART I
Registration
and Marking of Aircraft
PART II
Air Operators'
Certificates
PART III
Airworthiness
and Equipment of Aircraft
PART IV
Aircraft Crew
and Licensing
PART V
Operation of
Aircraft
PART VI
Fatigue of Crew
PART VII
Documents and
Records
PART VIII
Movement of
Aircraft
PART IX
Air Traffic
Services
PART X
Aerodromes,
Aeronautical Lights and Dangerous Lights
PART XI
General
SCHEDULES
At the Court at
Buckingham Palace, the 9th day of June 2001
Present,
The Queen's
Most Excellent Majesty in Council
Her Majesty, in exercise of the powers conferred on Her by Sections 8, 41,
57, 58, 59 and 61 of the Civil Aviation Act 1949[1] as extended
to certain territories by the Civil Aviation Act 1949 (Overseas Territories)
Order 1969[2], as
amended by the Civil Aviation Act 1982 (Overseas Territories) Order 2001[3], and
all other powers enabling Her in that behalf, is pleased, by and with the
advice of Her Privy Council, to order, and
it is hereby ordered, as follows:
Citation, Commencement and Revocation
Citation and Commencement
1. This Order may be cited as the
Air Navigation (Overseas Territories) Order 2001 and shall come into force on
16th July 2001.
Revocation
2. The Orders specified in the
Schedule 1 to this Order are hereby revoked, except insofar as they apply to
Gibraltar.
PART I
Registration and Marking of Aircraft
Aircraft to be registered
3. - (1) Subject to paragraph (2) an aircraft shall not fly
in or over the Territory unless it is registered in:
(a) some part of the Commonwealth;
(b) a Contracting State; or
(c) some other country in relation to which there is in force an agreement
between Her Majesty's Government in the United Kingdom
and the Government of
that country which makes provision for the flight over the Territory of
aircraft registered in that country.
(2)
(a) A glider may fly unregistered, and shall be
deemed to be registered in the Territory for the purposes of articles 14, 15,
21 and 43 of this Order, on any flight which:
(i) begins and ends in the
Territory without passing over any other country, and
(ii) is not for the purpose of public transport or aerial work other than
aerial work which consists of the giving of instruction
in flying or the
conducting of flying tests in a glider owned or operated by a flying club of
which the person giving the instruction
or conducting the test and the person
receiving the instruction or undergoing the test are both members.
(b) Any aircraft may fly unregistered on any flight
which:
(i) begins and ends in the
Territory without passing over any other country, and
(ii) is in accordance with the "B Conditions" set forth in Part A
of Schedule 3 to this Order.
(c) Paragraph (1) shall not apply to any kite or
captive balloon.
(3) If an aircraft flies over the Territory in
contravention of paragraph (1) in such manner or circumstances
that if the
aircraft had been registered in the Territory an offence against this Order
or any regulations made thereunder
would have been committed, the like offence
shall be deemed to have been committed in respect of that aircraft.
Registration of aircraft in the Territory
4. - (1) The Governor shall be the authority for the
registration of aircraft in the Territory and shall be responsible
for
maintaining the register and may record therein the particulars specified in
paragraph (7) in a legible or a non-legible
form so long as the recording is
capable of being reproduced in a legible form.
(2) Subject to the provisions of this article, an
aircraft shall not be registered or continue to be
registered in the
Territory if it appears to the Governor that:
(a) the aircraft is registered outside the Territory
and that such registration does not cease by operation of law upon the
aircraft being registered in the Territory;
(b) an unqualified person holds any legal or beneficial interest by way of
ownership in the aircraft or any share therein;
(c) the aircraft could more suitably be registered in some other part of the
Commonwealth; or
(d) it would be inexpedient in the public interest for the aircraft to be or
to continue to be registered in the Territory.
(3) The following persons and no others shall
be qualified to hold a legal or beneficial interest by way
of ownership in an
aircraft registered in the Territory or a share therein:
(a) the Crown in right of Her Majesty's Government
in the United Kingdom or in right of the Government of the Territory;
(b) Commonwealth citizens;
(c) citizens of the Republic of Ireland;
(d) British protected persons;
(e) bodies incorporated in some part of the Commonwealth and having their
principal place of business in any part of the Commonwealth;
or
(f) firms carrying on business in Scotland.
In this sub-paragraph "firm" has the same
meaning as in the Partnership Act 1890[4]
(4)
(a) If any unqualified person residing of having a place of business
in the Territory holds a legal or beneficial interest by way
of ownership in
an aircraft, or a share therein, the Governor, upon being satisfied that the
aircraft may otherwise be properly
so registered, may register the aircraft
in the Territory.
(b) The person aforesaid shall not cause or permit the aircraft, while it is
registered in pursuance of this paragraph, to
be used for the purpose of
public transport or aerial work.
(5)
If an aircraft is chartered to a person qualified as aforesaid the Governor
may, whether or not
an unqualified person is entitled as owner to a legal or
beneficial interest therein, register the aircraft in the Territory in
the
name of the charterer upon being satisfied that the aircraft may otherwise be
properly so registered, and subject to the
provisions of this article the
aircraft may remain so registered during the continuation of the charter.
(6) Application for the registration of an aircraft
in the Territory shall be made in writing to the
Governor, and shall include
or be accompanied by such particulars and evidence relating to the aircraft
and the ownership and
chartering thereof as he may require to enable him to
determine whether the aircraft may properly be registered in the Territory
and to issue the certificate referred to in paragraph (8). In particular, the
application shall include the proper description
of the aircraft according to
column 4 of the "General classification of aircraft" set forth in
Part A of Schedule
2 to this Order.
(7) Upon receiving an application for the
registration of an aircraft in the Territory and being satisfied
that the
aircraft may properly be so registered, the Governor shall register the
aircraft, wherever it may be, and shall include
in the register the following
particulars:
(a) the number of the certificate;
(b) the nationality mark of the aircraft, and the registration mark assigned
to it by the Governor;
(c) the name of the constructor of the aircraft and its designation;
(d) the serial number of the aircraft; and
(e)
(i) the name and address of every person who is entitled as owner to a
legal interest in the aircraft or a share therein, or in
the case of an
aircraft which is the subject of a charter by demise, the name and address of
the charterer by demise; and
(ii) in the case of an aircraft registered in pursuance of paragraphs (4) or
(5), an indication that it is so registered.
(8)
(a) Subject to sub-paragraph (b) the Governor shall furnish to the
person in whose name the aircraft is registered (hereinafter
in this article
referred to as the "the registered owner") a certificate of registration,
which shall include the
foregoing particulars and the date on which the
certificate was issued.
(b) The Governor shall not be required to furnish a certificate of
registration if the registered owner is the holder of an
aircraft dealer's
certificate granted under this Order who has made to the Governor and has not
withdrawn a statement of his
intention that the aircraft is to fly only in
accordance with the conditions set forth in Part C of Schedule 2 to this
Order,
and in that case the aircraft shall fly only in accordance with those
conditions.
(9)
The Governor may grant to any person qualified as aforesaid an aircraft
dealer's certificate if
he is satisfied that he has a place of business in
the Territory for buying and selling aircraft.
(10) Subject to paragraphs (4) and (5), if at any
time after an aircraft has been registered in the
Territory an unqualified
person becomes entitled to a legal or beneficial interest by way of ownership
in the aircraft or a
share therein, the registration of the aircraft shall
thereupon become void and the certificate of registration shall forthwith
be
returned by the registered owner to the Governor.
(11) Any person who is the registered owner of an
aircraft registered in the Territory shall forthwith
inform the Governor in
writing of:
(a) any change in the particulars which were furnished to the Governor
upon application being made for the registration of the
aircraft;
(b) the destruction of the aircraft, or its permanent withdrawal from use; or
(c) in the case of an aircraft registered in pursuance of paragraph (5), the
termination of the demise charter.
(12)
Any person who becomes the owner of an aircraft registered in the Territory
shall within 28 days
inform the Governor in writing to that effect.
(13) The Governor may, whenever it appears to him
necessary or appropriate to do so for giving effect
to this Part of this
Order or for bringing up to date or otherwise correcting the particulars
entered on the register, amend
the register or, if he thinks fit, may cancel
the registration of the aircraft, and shall cancel that registration within
two
months of being satisfied that there has been a change in the ownership
of the aircraft.
(14) The Governor may, by regulations, adapt or modify
the foregoing provisions of this article as
he deems necessary or expedient
for the purpose of providing for the temporary transfer of aircraft to or
from the Territory
register, either generally or in relation to a particular
case or class of cases.
(15) In this article references to an interest in an
aircraft do not include references to an interest
in an aircraft to which a
person is entitled only by virtue of his membership of a flying club and the
reference in paragraph
(11) to the registered owner of an aircraft includes,
in the case of a deceased person, his legal personal representative, and
in
the case of a body corporate which has been dissolved, its successor.
(16) Nothing in this article shall require the
Governor to cancel the registration of an aircraft if
in his opinion it would
be inexpedient in the public interest to do so.
(17) The registration of an aircraft which is the
subject of an undischarged mortgage entered in the
Register of Aircraft
Mortgages kept in the Territory pursuant to an Order in Council made under
section 86 of the Civil Aviation
Act 1982[5] which
extends to the Territory or pursuant to other legislation in force in the
Territory relating to the mortgaging of aircraft,
shall not become void by
virtue of paragraph (10) of this Article, nor shall the Governor cancel the
registration of such an
aircraft pursuant to this Article unless all persons
shown in the Register of Aircraft Mortgages as mortgagees of that aircraft
have consented to the cancellation.
(18) The Governor shall, at such times and in such a
manner as may from time to time be directed by
the Civil Aviation Authority,
transmit to the Civil Aviation Authority particulars of all registrations and
of changes in or
cancellations of registrations, entered in the register.
Nationality and registration marks
5. - (1) An aircraft
(other than an aircraft permitted by or under this Order to fly without being
registered) shall
not fly unless it bears painted thereon or affixed thereto,
in the manner required by the law of the country in which it is registered,
the nationality and registration marks required by that law.
(2) The marks to be borne by aircraft registered in
the Territory shall comply with Part B of Schedule
2 to this Order.
(3) Subject to paragraph (4), an aircraft shall not
bear any marks which purport to indicate:
(a) that the aircraft is registered in a country in
which it is not in fact registered, or
(b) that the aircraft is a State aircraft of a particular country if it is
not in fact such an aircraft, unless the appropriate
authority of that
country has sanctioned the bearing of such marks.
(4) Marks approved by the Governor for the purposes
of flight in accordance with the 'B Conditions' contained
in Part A of
Schedule 3 to this Order shall be deemed not to purport to indicate that the
aircraft is registered in a country
in which it is not in fact registered.
PART II
Air Operators' Certificates
Issue of air operators' certificates
6. - (1) Subject to article 7 of this Order, an aircraft
registered in the Territory shall not fly on any flight for the
purpose of
public transport, otherwise than under and in accordance with the terms of an
air operator's certificate granted
to the operator of the aircraft under
paragraph (2), certifying that the holder of the certificate is competent to
secure that
aircraft operated by him on such flights as that in question are
operated safely.
(2)
(a) The Governor shall grant an air operator's
certificate if he is satisfied that the applicant is competent, having regard
in particular to his previous conduct and experience, his equipment,
organisation, staffing, maintenance and other arrangements,
to secure the
safe operation of aircraft of the types specified in the certificate on
flights of the description and for the
purposes so specified.
(b) A certificate may be granted subject to such conditions as the Governor
thinks fit and shall, subject to article 81 of
this Order, remain in force
for the period specified in the certificate.
Issue of police air operators' certificates
7. - (1) A flight by an aircraft registered in the Territory
in the service of the police authority for the Territory
(in this Order
called 'the police authority') shall, for the purposes of this Order, be
deemed to be a flight for the purpose
of public transport and if any
passenger is carried the flight shall be deemed to be for the purpose of
public transport of
passengers, and save as otherwise expressly provided, the
provisions of this Order and of any regulations made thereunder shall
be
complied with in relation to any such flight as if that flight was for the
purpose of public transport or public transport
of passengers as the case may
be.
(2) An aircraft registered in the Territory shall not
fly on any flight in the service of the police
authority otherwise than under
and in accordance with either the terms of an air operator's certificate
granted to the operator
of the aircraft under article 6(2) of this Order or
the terms of a police air operator's certificate granted to the operator of
the aircraft under paragraph (3), certifying that the holder of the
certificate is competent to secure that aircraft operated
by him on flights
for the purpose of police operations are operated as safely as is appropriate
having regard to the particular
purposes of the flight.
(3) The Governor shall grant a police air operator's
certificate (in this Order called 'a police air
operator's certificate') if
he is satisfied that the applicant is competent having regard in particular
to his previous conduct
and experience, his equipment, organisation,
staffing, maintenance and other arrangements, to secure that the operation of
aircraft of the types specified in the certificate shall be as safe as is
appropriate when flying on flights of the description
and for the purposes so
specified. The certificate may be granted subject to such conditions as the
Governor thinks fit and
shall, subject to article 81 of this Order, remain in
force for the period specified in the certificate.
PART III
Airworthiness and Equipment of Aircraft
Certificate of airworthiness to be in force
8. - (1) Subject to paragraph (2) an aircraft shall not fly
unless there is in force in respect thereof a certificate
of airworthiness
duly issued or rendered valid under the law of the country in which the
aircraft is registered or the State
of the operator, and any conditions
subject to which the certificate was issued or rendered valid are complied
with.
(2) The foregoing prohibition shall not apply to
flights, beginning and ending in the Territory without
passing over any other
country, of:
(a) a glider, if it is not being used for the public
transport of passengers or aerial work other than aerial work which consists
of the giving of instruction in flying or the conducting of flying tests in a
glider owned or operated by a flying club of
which the person giving the
instruction or conducting the test and the person receiving the instruction
or undergoing the test
are both members;
(b) a balloon flying on a private flight;
(c) a kite;
(d) an aircraft flying in accordance with the 'A Conditions' or the 'B
Conditions' set forth in Part A of Schedule 3 to this
Order; or
(e) an aircraft flying in accordance with the conditions of a permit to fly
issued by the Governor in respect of that aircraft.
(3) In the case of an aircraft registered in
the Territory the certificate of airworthiness referred to
in paragraph (1)
shall be a certificate issued or rendered valid in accordance with the
provisions of article 9 of this Order.
Issue, renewal, etc., of certificates of airworthiness
9. - (1) The Governor shall issue in respect of any aircraft
a certificate of airworthiness if he is satisfied that the
aircraft is fit to
fly having regard to:
(a) the design, construction, workmanship and
materials of the aircraft (including in particular any engines fitted
therein),
and of any equipment carried in the aircraft which he considers
necessary for the airworthiness of the aircraft; and
(b)
(i) Subject to sub-paragraph (ii)
the results of flying trials, and such other tests of the aircraft as he may
require:
(ii) if the Governor has issued a certificate of airworthiness in respect of
an aircraft which, in his opinion, is a prototype
aircraft or a modification
of a prototype aircraft, he may dispense with flying trials in the case of
any other aircraft if
he is satisfied that it conforms to such prototype or
modification.
(2) Every certificate of airworthiness shall
specify such categories as are, in the opinion of the Governor,
appropriate
to the aircraft in accordance with Part B of Schedule 3 to this Order and the
certificate shall be issued subject
to the condition that the aircraft shall
be flown only for the purposes indicated in the said Schedule in relation to
those
categories.
(3) The Governor may issue the certificate of
airworthiness subject to such other conditions relating
to the airworthiness
of the aircraft as he thinks fit.
(4) The certificate of airworthiness may designate
the performance group to which the aircraft belongs
for the purposes of the
requirements referred to in article 36(1) of this Order.
(5) The Governor may, subject to such conditions as
he thinks fit, issue a certificate of validation
rendering valid for the
purposes of this Order a certificate of airworthiness issued in respect of
any aircraft under the law
of any country other than the Territory.
(6) Subject to the provisions of this article and of
article 81 of this Order, a certificate of airworthiness
or validation issued
under this article shall remain in force for such a period as may be
specified therein, and may be renewed
from time to time by the Governor for
such further period as he thinks fit.
(7) A certificate of airworthiness or a certificate
of validation issued in respect of an aircraft
shall cease to be in force:
(a) if the aircraft, or such of its equipment as is
necessary for the airworthiness of the aircraft, is overhauled, repaired or
modified, or if any part of the aircraft or of such equipment is removed or
is replaced, otherwise than in a manner and with
material of a type approved
by the Governor either generally or in relation to a class of aircraft or to
the particular aircraft;
(b) until the completion of any inspection or maintenance of the aircraft or
of any such equipment as aforesaid, being an inspection
made for the purpose
of ascertaining whether the aircraft remains airworthy and:
(i) classified as mandatory by the
Governor;
(ii) required by a maintenance schedule approved by the Governor in relation
to that aircraft; or
(c) until the completion to the satisfaction of the
Governor of any modification of the aircraft or of any such equipment as
aforesaid, being a modification required by the Governor for the purpose of
ensuring that the aircraft remains airworthy.
(8) Nothing in this Order shall oblige the
Governor to accept an application for the issue of a certificate
of
airworthiness or validation or for the variation or renewal of any such
certificate when the application is not supported
by such reports from such
approved persons as the Governor may specify (either generally or in a
particular case or class of
cases).
Certificate of maintenance review
10. - (1)
(a) An aircraft registered in the
Territory in respect of which a certificate of airworthiness is in force
shall not fly unless
the aircraft (including in particular its engines),
together with its equipment and radio station, is maintained in accordance
with a maintenance schedule approved by the Governor in relation to that
aircraft.
(b) An aircraft registered in the Territory in respect of which a certificate
of airworthiness in either the transport or in
the aerial work category is in
force shall not fly unless there is in force a certificate (in this Order
referred to as a 'certificate
of maintenance review') issued in respect of
the aircraft in accordance with the provisions of this article and such
certificate
shall certify the date on which the maintenance review was
carried out and the date when the next review is due.
(2) A maintenance schedule
approved pursuant to paragraph (1) in relation to an aircraft in respect of
which there has been issued a certificate of airworthiness in either the
transport or in the aerial work category shall specify
the occasions on which
a review must be carried out for the purpose of issuing a certificate of
maintenance review.
(3)
(a) Subject to sub-paragraph (b),
a certificate of maintenance review may be issued for the purposes of this
article only by:
(i) the holder of an aircraft
maintenance engineer's licence:
(aa) granted under this Order,
being a licence which entitles him to issue that certificate;
(bb) granted under the law of a country other than the Territory and rendered
valid under this Order in accordance with the
privileges endorsed on the
licence; or
(cc) granted under the law of any country specified in regulation 15 in Schedule
14 to this Order in accordance with the privileges
endorsed on the licence
and subject to any conditions which may be prescribed.
(ii) a person whom the Governor
has authorised to issue a certificate of maintenance review in a particular
case, and in accordance
with that authority; or
(iii) a person approved by the Governor as being competent to issue such a
certificate, and in accordance with that approval.
(b) In approving a maintenance
schedule, the Governor may direct that certificates of maintenance review
relating to that schedule,
or to any part thereof specified in his direction,
may be issued only by the holder of such a licence as is so specified.
(4) A person referred to in
paragraph (3) shall not issue a certificate of maintenance review unless he
has first verified that:
(a) maintenance has been carried
out on the aircraft in accordance with the maintenance schedule approved for
that aircraft;
(b) inspections and modifications required by the Governor as provided in
article 9 of this Order have been completed as certified
in the relevant
certificate of release to service issued under this Order;
(c) defects entered in the technical log of the aircraft in accordance with
article 11 of this Order have been rectified or
the rectification thereof has
been deferred in accordance with procedures approved by the Governor; and
(d) certificates of release to service have been issued under this Order and
for this purpose the operator of the aircraft
shall make available to that
person such information as is necessary.
(5)
(a) A certificate of maintenance
review shall be issued in duplicate.
(b) One copy of the most recently issued certificate shall be carried in the
aircraft when article 76 of this Order so requires,
and the other shall be kept
by the operator elsewhere than in the aircraft.
(6) Subject to article 80 of
this Order, each certificate of maintenance review shall be preserved by the
operator of the aircraft for a period of two years after it has been issued.
Technical Log
11. - (1) A technical log shall be kept in
respect of every aircraft registered in the Territory in respect of which a
certificate of airworthiness in either the transport or in the aerial work
category is in force.
(2)
(a) Subject to sub-paragraph (b),
at the end of every flight by an aircraft to which the provisions of this
article apply the
commander of the aircraft shall enter:
(i) the times when the aircraft
took off and landed;
(ii) particulars of any defect which is known to him and which affects the
airworthiness or safe operation of the aircraft,
or if no such defect is
known to him, an entry to that effect; and
(iii) such other particulars in respect of the airworthiness or operation of
the aircraft as the Governor may require;
in a technical log, or, in the
case of an aircraft of which the maximum total weight authorised does not
exceed 2730 kg and
which is not operated by a person who is the holder of or
is required by article 6(1) of this Order to hold an air operator's
certificate, in such other record as the Governor shall approve, and the
commander shall sign and date such entries.
(b) In the case of a number of consecutive flights each of which begins and
ends:
(i) within the same period of 24
hours.
(ii) at the same aerodrome, except where each such flight is for the purpose
of dropping or projecting any material for agricultural,
public health or
similar purposes; and
(iii) with the same person as commander of the aircraft:
the commander of an aircraft may,
except where he becomes aware of a defect during an earlier flight, make the
entries specified
in sub-paragraph (a) in a technical log at the end of the
last of such consecutive flights.
(3) Upon the rectification
of any defect which has been entered in a technical log in accordance with
paragraph (2) a person issuing a certificate of release to service issued
under this Order in respect of that defect shall enter
the certificate in the
technical log in such a position as to be readily identifiable with the
defect to which it relates.
(4) (a) Subject to sub-paragraph (b), the technical
log referred to in this article shall be carried
in the aircraft when article
76 of this Order so requires and copies of the entries referred to in this
article shall be kept
on the ground.
(b) In the case of an aeroplane of
which the maximum total weight authorised does not exceed 2730 kg, or a
helicopter, if it
is not reasonably practicable for the copy of the technical
log to be kept on the ground it may be carried in the aeroplane or
helicopter, as the case may be, in a container approved by the Governor for
that purpose.
(5) Subject to article 80 of
this Order, a technical log or such other approved record required by this
article shall be preserved by the operator of the aircraft to which it
relates until a date 2 years after the aircraft has
been destroyed or has
been permanently withdrawn from use, or for such shorter period as the
Governor may permit in a particular
case.
Inspection, overhaul, repair, replacement and modification
12. - (1) This article shall apply to any
aircraft registered in the Territory in respect of which a certificate of
airworthiness issued or rendered valid under this Order is in force.
(2) Except as provided in paragraphs (4) and (5) an
aircraft to which this article applies shall not
fly unless there is in force
a certificate of release to service issued under this Order if the aircraft
or any part of the
aircraft or such of its equipment as is necessary for the
airworthiness of the aircraft has been overhauled, repaired, replaced,
modified, maintained or has been inspected as provided in article 9(7)(b) of
this Order, as the case may be.
(3) If a repair or replacement of a part of an
aircraft or its equipment is carried out when the aircraft
is at such a place
that it is not reasonably practicable:
(a) for the repair or replacement
to be carried out in such a manner that a certificate of release to service
under this Order
can be issued in respect thereof; or
(b) for such a certificate to be issued while the aircraft is at that place;
it may fly to a place at which such a certificate
can be issued, being the nearest place:
(i) to which the aircraft can, in
the reasonable opinion of the commander thereof, safely fly by a route for
which it is properly
equipped; and
(ii) to which it is reasonable to fly having regard to any hazards to the
liberty or health of any person on board;
and in such case the commander of
the aircraft shall cause written particulars of the flight, and the reasons for
making it,
to be given to the Governor within 10 days thereafter.
(4) A certificate of release
to service shall not be required to be in force in respect of an aircraft
to
which this article applies of which the maximum total weight authorised does
not exceed 2730 kg and in respect of which
a certificate of airworthiness in
the special category is in force, unless the Governor gives a direction to
the contrary in
a particular case.
(5)
(a) A certificate of release to
service shall not be required to be in force in respect of an aircraft to
which this article
applies of which the maximum total weight authorised does
not exceed 2730 kg and in respect of which a certificate of airworthiness
in
the private or special categories is in force if it flies in the
circumstances specified in sub-paragraph (b).
(b)
(i) The only repairs or
replacements in respect of which a certificate of release to service is not
in force are of such a description
as are specified in regulation 17 in
Schedule 14 to this Order.
(ii) Such repairs or replacements have been carried out personally by the
holder of a pilot's licence granted or rendered valid
under this Order who is
the owner or operator of the aircraft.
(iii) The person carrying out the repairs or replacements shall keep in the
aircraft log book kept in respect of the aircraft
pursuant to article 17 of
this Order a record which identifies the repairs or replacement and shall
sign and date the entries.
(iv) Any equipment or parts used in carrying out such repairs or replacements
shall be of a type approved by the Governor either
generally or in relation
to a class of aircraft or one particular aircraft.
(c) The person responsible for
keeping the aircraft log book shall, subject to article 80 of this Order,
preserve the log book
for the period specified in article 17 of this Order.
(6) Neither:
(a) equipment provided in
compliance with Schedule 4 to this Order (except paragraph 3 thereof); nor
(b) radio apparatus provided for use in an aircraft or in any survival craft
carried in an aircraft, whether or not such apparatus
is provided in
compliance with this Order or any regulations made thereunder,
shall be installed or placed on board for use in an
aircraft to which this article applies after being overhauled, repaired,
modified or inspected, unless there is in force in respect thereof at the
time when it is installed or placed on board a certificate
of release to
service issued under this Order.
(7) A certificate of release to service issued under
this Order shall:
(a) certify that the aircraft or
any part thereof or its equipment has been overhauled, repaired, replaced,
modified or maintained,
as the case may be, in a manner and with material of
a type approved by the Governor either generally or in relation to a class
of
aircraft or the particular aircraft and shall identify the overhaul, repair,
replacement, modification or maintenance to
which the certificate relates and
shall include particulars of the work done; or
(b) certify in relation to any inspection required by the Governor that the
aircraft or the part thereof or its equipment,
as the case may be, has been
inspected in accordance with the requirements of the Governor and that any
consequential repair,
replacement or modification has been carried out as
aforesaid.
(8) A certificate of release
to service issued under this Order may be issued only by:
(a) the holder of an aircraft
maintenance engineer's licence:
(i) granted under this Order,
being a licence which entitles him to issue that certificate;
(ii) granted under the law of a country other than the Territory and rendered
valid under this Order, in accordance with the
privileges endorsed on the
licence; or
(iii) granted under the law of any country specified in regulation 15 in
Schedule 14 to this Order in accordance with the privileges
endorsed on the
licence and subject to any conditions which may be prescribed;
(b) the holder of an aircraft
maintenance engineer's licence or authorisation as such an engineer granted
or issued by or under
the law of any Contracting State other than the
Territory in which the overhaul, repair, replacement, modification or
inspection
has been carried out, but only in respect of aircraft to which
this article applies of which the maximum total weight authorised
does not
exceed 2730 kg and in accordance with the privileges endorsed on the licence;
(c) a person approved by the Governor as being competent to issue such
certification, and in accordance with that approval;
(d) a person whom the Governor has authorised to issue the certificate in a
particular case, and in accordance with that authority;
or
(e) in relation only to the adjustment and compensation of direct reading
magnetic compasses, the holder of an Airline Transport
Pilot's Licence
(Aeroplanes) or a Flight Navigator's Licence granted or rendered valid under
this Order.
(9) In this article, the
expression "repair" includes in relation to a compass the
adjustment
and compensation thereof and the expression "repaired"
shall be construed accordingly.
Licensing of maintenance engineers
13. - (1) The Governor shall grant aircraft
maintenance engineers' licences, subject to such conditions as he thinks fit,
upon being satisfied that the applicant is a fit person to hold the licence
and is qualified by reason of his knowledge, experience,
competence and skill
in aeronautical engineering, and for that purpose the applicant shall furnish
such evidence and undergo
such examinations and tests as the Governor may
require of him.
(2) An aircraft maintenance engineer's licence shall
authorise the holder, subject to such conditions
as may be specified in the
licence, to issue:
(a) certificates of maintenance
review in respect of such aircraft as may be so specified;
(b) certificates of release to service under this Order in respect of such
overhauls, repairs, replacements, modifications,
maintenance and inspections
of such aircraft and such equipment as may be so specified; or
(c) certificates of fitness for flight under "A Conditions" in
respect of such aircraft as may be so specified.
(3) A licence shall, subject
to article 81 of this Order, remain in force for the period specified
therein,
not exceeding five years, but may be renewed by the Governor from
time to time upon his being satisfied that the applicant is
a fit person and
is qualified as aforesaid.
(4)
(a) The Governor may issue a
certificate rendering valid for the purposes of this Order any licence as an
aircraft maintenance
engineer granted under the law of any country other than
the Territory.
(b) Such a certificate may be issued subject to conditions, and for such
periods, as the Governor thinks fit.
(5) A licence granted under
this article shall not be valid unless it bears thereon the ordinary
signature
of the holder in ink.
(6) Without prejudice to any other provision of this
Order the Governor may, for the purposes of this
article, either absolutely
or subject to such conditions as he thinks fit:
(a) approve any course of training
or instruction;
(b) authorise a person to conduct such examinations or tests as he may
specify; and
(c) approve a person to provide or conduct any course of training or
instruction.
(7) The holder of an
aircraft maintenance engineer's licence shall not exercise the privileges of such
a licence if he knows or suspects that his physical or mental condition
renders him unfit to exercise such privileges.
(8) The holder of an aircraft maintenance engineer's
licence shall not, when exercising the privileges
of such a licence, be under
the influence of drink or a drug to such an extent as to impair his capacity
to exercise such privileges.
Equipment of aircraft
14. - (1) An aircraft shall not fly unless
it is so equipped as to comply with the law of the country in which it is registered,
and to enable lights and markings to be displayed, and signals to be made, in
accordance with this Order and any regulations
made thereunder.
(2) In the case of any aircraft registered in the
Territory the equipment required to be provided (in
addition to any other
equipment required by or under this Order) shall:
(a) be that specified in such
parts of Schedule 4 to this Order as are applicable in the circumstances;
(b) comply with the provisions of that Schedule;
(c) except that specified in paragraph 3 of the said Schedule, be of a type
approved by the Governor either generally or in
relation to a class of
aircraft or in relation to that aircraft; and
(d) be installed in a manner so approved.
(3) In any particular case
the Governor may direct that an aircraft registered in the Territory shall
carry such additional or special equipment or supplies as he may specify for
the purpose of facilitating the navigation of the
aircraft, the carrying out
of search and rescue operations or the survival of the persons carried in the
aircraft.
(4) The equipment carried in compliance with this
article shall be so installed or stowed and kept
stowed, and so maintained
and adjusted as to be readily accessible and capable of being used by the
person for whose use it
is intended.
(5)
(a) The position of equipment
provided for emergency use shall be indicated by clear markings in or on the
aircraft.
(b) In every public transport aircraft registered in the Territory there
shall be provided individually for each passenger
or, if the Governor so
permits in writing, exhibited in a prominent position in every passenger
compartment, a notice which
complies with sub-paragraph (c).
(c)
(i) The required notice shall be
relevant to the aircraft in question;
(ii) The required notice shall contain pictorial instructions on the brace
position to be adopted in the event of an emergency
landing;
(iii) The required notice shall contain pictorial instructions on the method
of use of the safety belts and safety harnesses
as appropriate;
(iv) The required notice shall contain pictorial information as to where
emergency exits are to be found and instructions as
to how they are to be
used;
(v) The required notice shall contain pictorial information as to where the
lifejackets, escape slides, liferafts and oxygen
masks, if required to be
provided by paragraph (2), are to be found and instructions as to how they
are to be used.
(6) All equipment installed
or carried in an aircraft, whether or not in compliance with this article,
shall be so installed or stowed and so maintained and adjusted as not to be a
source of danger in itself or to impair the airworthiness
of the aircraft or
the proper functioning of any equipment or services necessary for the safety
of the aircraft.
(7) Without prejudice to paragraph (2), all
navigational equipment (other than radio apparatus) of
any of the following
types, namely:
(a) equipment capable of
establishing the aircraft's position in relation to its position at some
earlier time by computing
and applying the resultant of the acceleration and
gravitational forces acting upon it; and
(b) equipment capable of establishing automatically the altitude and relative
bearing of selected celestial bodies;
when carried in an aircraft registered in the
Territory (whether or not in compliance with this Order or any regulations
made
thereunder) shall be of a type approved by the Governor either generally
or in relation to a class of aircraft or in relation
to that aircraft and
shall be installed in a manner so approved.
(8) This article shall not apply in relation to radio
apparatus except that specified in Schedule 4
to this Order.
Radio equipment of aircraft
15. - (1) An aircraft shall not fly unless
it is so equipped with radio and radio navigation equipment as to comply with
the law of the country in which the aircraft is registered or the State of
the operator and to enable communications to be
made and the aircraft to be
navigated, in accordance with the provisions of this Order and any
regulations made thereunder,
and in particular Schedule 14 to this Order.
(2) Without prejudice to paragraph (1), the aircraft
shall be equipped with radio and radio navigation
equipment in accordance
with Schedule 5 to this Order.
(3) In any particular case the Governor may direct
that an aircraft registered in the Territory shall
carry such additional or
special radio or radio navigation equipment as he may specify for the purpose
of facilitating the
navigation of the aircraft, the carrying out of search
and rescue operations or the survival of the persons carried in the aircraft.
(4) Subject to such exceptions as may be prescribed
the radio and radio navigation equipment provided
in compliance with this
article in an aircraft registered in the Territory shall always be maintained
in serviceable condition.
(5) All radio and radio navigation equipment
installed in an aircraft registered in the Territory or
carried on such an
aircraft for use in connection with the aircraft (whether or not in
compliance with this Order or any regulations
made thereunder) shall be of a
type approved by the Governor in relation to the purpose for which it is to
be used, and shall,
except in the case of a glider which is permitted by
article 3(2) of this Order to fly unregistered, be installed in a manner
approved by the Governor. Neither the equipment nor the manner in which it is
installed shall be modified except with the approval
of the Governor.
Minimum equipment requirements
16. - (1) The Governor may, subject to such
conditions as he thinks fit, grant in respect of any aircraft or class of
aircraft registered in the Territory a permission permitting such aircraft to
commence a flight in specified circumstances notwithstanding
that any
specified item of equipment (including radio apparatus) required by or under
this Order to be carried in the circumstances
of the intended flight is not
carried or is not in a fit condition for use.
(2) An aircraft registered in the Territory shall not
commence a flight if any of the equipment (including
radio apparatus)
required by or under this Order to be carried in the circumstances of the
intended flight is not carried or
is not in a fit condition for use:
(a) otherwise than under and in
accordance with the terms of a permission under this article which has been
granted to the operator;
and
(b) unless in the case of an aircraft to which article 31 of this Order
applies, the operations manual required thereby contains
the particulars
specified at sub-paragraph (xvii) of Part A of Schedule 10 to this Order; and
(c) unless in the case of an aircraft to which article 32 of this Order
applies, the police operations manual required thereby
contains the
particulars specified in sub-paragraph (xvii) of Part A of Schedule 10 to
this Order.
Aircraft, engine and propeller log books
17. - (1) In addition to any other log books
required by or under this Order, the following log books shall be kept in
respect of aircraft registered in the Territory:
(a) an aircraft log book;
(b) a separate log book in respect of each engine fitted in the aircraft; and
(c) a separate log book in respect of each variable pitch propeller fitted to
the aircraft.
(2) The log books shall
include the particulars respectively specified in Schedule 6 to this Order
and
in the case of an aircraft having a maximum total weight authorised not
exceeding 2730 kg, shall be of a type approved by the
Governor.
(3)
(a) Each entry in the log book,
other than such an entry as is referred to in sub-paragraphs 2(d)(ii) or
3(d)(ii) of Schedule
6 to this Order, shall be made as soon as practicable
after the occurrence to which it relates, but in no event more than seven
days after the expiration of the certificate of maintenance review (if any)
in force in respect of the aircraft at the time
of the occurrence.
(b) Each entry in the log book, being such an entry as is referred to in
sub-paragraphs 2(d)(ii) or 3(d)(ii) of Schedule 6
to this Order shall be made
upon each occasion that any maintenance, overhaul, repair, replacement,
modification or inspection
is undertaken on the engine or propeller, as the
case may be.
(4) Any document which is
incorporated by reference in a log book shall be deemed, for the purposes of
this Order, to be part of the log book.
(5) It shall be the duty of the operator of every
aircraft in respect of which log books are required
to be kept as aforesaid
to keep them or cause them to be kept in accordance with the foregoing
provisions of this article.
(6) Subject to article 80 of this Order every log
book shall be preserved by the operator of the aircraft
until a date 2 years
after the aircraft, the engine or the variable pitch propeller, as the case
may be, has been destroyed
or has been permanently withdrawn from use.
Aircraft weight schedule
18. - (1) Every flying machine and glider in
respect of which a certificate of airworthiness issued or rendered valid
under this Order is in force shall be weighed, and the position of its centre
of gravity determined, at such times and in such
manner as the Governor may
require or approve in the case of that aircraft.
(2) Upon the aircraft being weighed as aforesaid the
operator of the aircraft shall prepare a weight
schedule showing:
(a) either the basic weight of the
aircraft, that is to say, the weight of the aircraft empty together with the
weight of unusable
fuel and unusable oil in the aircraft and of such items of
equipment as are indicated in the weight schedule, or such other weight
as may
be approved by the Governor in the case of that aircraft; and
(b) either the position of the centre of gravity of the aircraft when the
aircraft contains only the items included in the
basic weight or such other
position of the centre of gravity as may be approved by the Governor in the
case of that aircraft.
(3) Subject to article 80 of
this Order the weight schedule shall be preserved by the operator of the
aircraft until the expiration of a period of six months following the next
occasion on which the aircraft is weighed for the
purposes of this article.
Access and inspection for airworthiness purposes
19. The Governor may cause such inspections,
investigations, tests, experiments and flight trials to be made as he deems
necessary
for the purposes of this Part of this Order and any person
authorised to do so in writing by the Governor may at any reasonable
time
inspect any part of, or material intended to be incorporated in or used in
the manufacture of any part of, an aircraft
or its equipment or any document
relating thereto and may for that purpose go upon any aerodrome or enter any
aircraft factory.
PART IV
Aircraft Crew and Licensing
Composition of crew of aircraft
20. - (1) An aircraft shall not fly unless
it carries a flight crew of the number and description required by the law of
the country in which it is registered.
(2) An aircraft registered in the Territory shall
carry a flight crew adequate in number and description
to ensure the safety
of the aircraft and of at least the number and description specified in the
certificate of airworthiness
issued or rendered valid under this Order or, if
no certificate of airworthiness is required under this Order to be in force,
the certificate of airworthiness, if any, last in force under this Order in
respect of that aircraft.
(3)
(a) A flying machine registered in
the Territory and flying for the purpose of public transport having a maximum
total weight
authorised exceeding 5,700 kg shall carry not less than two
pilots as members of the flight crew thereof.
(b)
(i) Subject to sub-paragraphs (ii)
and (iii), an aeroplane registered in the Territory and flying for the
purpose of public
transport in circumstances where the aircraft commander is
required to comply with the Instrument Flight Rules and having a maximum
total weight authorised of 5,700 kg or less and powered by:
(aa) one or more turbine jets;
(bb) one or more turbine propeller engines and provided with a means of
pressurising the personnel compartments;
(cc) two or more turbine propeller engines and certificated to carry more
than nine passengers;
(dd) two or more turbine propeller engines and certificated to carry fewer
than 10 passengers and not provided with a means
of pressurising the
personnel compartments, unless it is equipped with an autopilot which has
been approved by the Governor
for the purposes of this article and which is
serviceable on take-off; or
(ee) two or more piston engines, unless it is equipped with an autopilot
which has been approved by the Governor for the purposes
of this article and
which is serviceable on take-off;
shall carry not less than two
pilots as members of the flight crew thereof.
(ii) An aeroplane described in sub-paragraphs (i)(dd) or (i)(ee) which is
equipped with an approved autopilot shall not be
required to carry two pilots
notwithstanding that before take-off the approved autopilot is found to be
unserviceable, if the
aeroplane flies in accordance with arrangements
approved by the Governor.
(iii) An aeroplane described in sub-paragraphs (i)(cc), (dd) or (ee) which is
flying under and in accordance with the terms
of a police air operator's
certificate shall not be required to carry two pilots.
(c)
(i) Subject to sub-paragraphs (ii)
and (iii), a helicopter registered in the Territory which has a maximum total
weight authorised
of 5,700 kg or less and a maximum approved seating
configuration of nine or less which if flying for the purpose of public
transport in circumstances where the aircraft commander is required to comply
with the Instrument Flight Rules or which is flying
by night with visual
ground reference shall carry not less than two pilots as members of the
flight crew thereof unless it
is equipped with an autopilot with, at least,
altitude hold and heading mode which is serviceable on take off.
(ii) A helicopter described in sub-paragraph (c)(i) which is equipped with an
approved autopilot shall not be required to carry
two pilots notwithstanding
that before take-off the approved autopilot is found to be unserviceable, if
the helicopter flies
in accordance with arrangements approved by the
Governor.
(iii) A helicopter described in sub-paragraph (c)(i) which is flying under
and in accordance with the terms of a police air
operator's certificate shall
not be required to carry two pilots.
(4)
(a) An aircraft registered in the
Territory engaged on a flight for the purpose of public transport shall
carry:
(i) a flight navigator as a member
of the flight crew; or
(ii) navigational equipment suitable for the route to be flown;
if on the route or any diversion
therefrom, being a route or diversion planned before take-off, the aircraft
is intended to
be more than 500 nautical miles from the point of take-off
measured along the route to be flown, and to pass over part of an area
specified in Schedule 7 to this Order.
(b) The flight navigator carried in compliance with this article shall be
carried in addition to any person who is carried
in accordance with this
article to perform other duties.
(5) An aircraft registered
in the Territory which is required by article 15 of this Order to be equipped
with radio communications apparatus shall carry a flight radiotelephony
operator as a member of the flight crew.
(6) The Governor may, in the interests of safety,
direct the operator of an aircraft registered in
the Territory that all or
any aircraft operated by him, when flying in circumstances specified in the
direction, shall carry,
in addition to the flight crew required to be carried
by the provisions of this article, such additional persons as members of
the
flight crew as he may specify in the direction.
(7)
(a) This paragraph applies to any
flight for the purpose of public transport by an aircraft registered in the
Territory:
(i) on which is carried 20 or more
passengers; or
(ii) which may in accordance with its certificate of airworthiness carry more
than 35 passengers and on which at least one
passenger is carried.
(b) The crew of an aircraft on a
flight to which this paragraph applies shall include cabin attendants carried
for the purposes
of performing in the interests of the safety of passengers,
duties to be assigned by the operator or the commander of the aircraft
but
who shall not act as members of the flight crew.
(c)
(i) Subject to sub-paragraph (ii),
on a flight to which this paragraph applies, there shall be carried not less
than one cabin
attendant for every 50 or fraction of 50 passenger seats
installed in the aircraft.
(ii) The number of cabin attendants calculated in accordance with sub-paragraph
(i) need not be carried if the Governor has
granted written permission to the
operator to carry a lesser number on that flight and the operator carries the
number specified
in that permission and complies with any other terms and
conditions subject to which such permission is granted.
(8) The Governor may, in the
interests of safety, direct the operator of any aircraft registered in the
Territory that all or any aircraft operated by him when flying in
circumstances specified in the direction shall carry, in
addition to the
cabin attendants required to be carried therein by the foregoing provisions
of this article, such additional
persons as cabin attendants as he may
specify in the direction.
Members of flight crew-requirements for licence
21. - (1) Subject to the provisions of this
article, a person shall not act as a member of the flight crew of an aircraft
registered in the Territory unless he is the holder of an appropriate licence
granted or rendered valid under this Order.
(2) A person may within the Territory, without being
the holder of such a licence:
(a) act as a flight radiotelephony
operator if
(i) he does so as the pilot of a
glider not flying for the purpose of public transport or aerial work and he
does not communicate
by radiotelephony with any air traffic control unit; or
(ii) he does so as a person being trained in an aircraft registered in the
Territory to perform duties as a member of the flight
crew of an aircraft;
and
(aa) he is authorised to operate
the radiotelephony station by the holder of the licence granted in respect of
that station
under any enactment;
(bb) messages are transmitted only for the purposes of instruction, or of the
safety or navigation of the aircraft;
(cc) messages are transmitted only on a frequency exceeding 60 MHz assigned
by the Governor for the purposes of this sub-paragraph;
(dd) the operation of the transmitter requires the use only of external
switches; and
(ee) the stability of the frequency radiated is maintained automatically by
the transmitter;
(b) subject to article 25(2) of
this Order, act as pilot in command of an aircraft for the purpose of
becoming qualified for
the grant or renewal of a pilot's licence or the
inclusion or variation of any rating in a pilot's licence if:
(i) he is at least 16 years of
age;
(ii) he is the holder of a valid medical certificate to the effect that he is
fit so to act issued by a person approved by
the Governor;
(iii) he complies with any conditions subject to which that medical
certificate was issued;
(iv) no other person is carried in the aircraft;
(v) the aircraft is not flying for the purpose of public transport or aerial
work other than aerial work which consists of
the giving of instruction in
flying or the conducting of flying tests; and
(vi) he so acts in accordance with instructions given by a person holding a
pilot's licence granted under this Order, being
a licence which includes a
flying instructor's rating or an assistant flying instructor's rating
entitling him to give instruction
in flying the type of aircraft being flown;
(c) subject to article 25(2) of
this Order, act as pilot of an aircraft in respect of which the flight crew
required to be carried
by or under this Order does not exceed one pilot for
the purpose of becoming qualified for the grant or renewal of a pilot's
licence or the inclusion or variation of any rating in a pilot's licence if:
(i) the aircraft is not flying for
the purpose of public transport or aerial work other than aerial work which
consists of the
giving of instruction in flying or the conducting of flying
tests;
(ii) he so acts in accordance with instructions given by a person holding a
pilot's licence granted under this Order, being
a licence which includes a
flying instructor's rating or an assistant flying instructor's rating
entitling him to give instruction
in flying the type of aircraft being flown;
and
(iii) the aircraft is fitted with dual controls and he is accompanied in the
aircraft by the said instructor who is seated
at the other set of controls or
the aircraft is fitted with controls designed for and capable of use by two
persons and he
is accompanied in the aircraft by the said instructor who is
seated so as to be able to use the controls;
(d) subject to article 25 (2) of
this Order, act as pilot in command of a helicopter or gyroplane at night if:
(i) he is the holder of an
appropriate licence granted or rendered valid under this Order in all
respects save that the licence
does not include an instrument rating and he
has not within the immediately preceding 13 months carried out as pilot in
command
not less than 5 take-offs and 5 landings at a time when the
depression of the centre of the sun was not less than 12 C below the
horizon;
(ii) he so acts in accordance with instructions given by a person holding a
pilot's licence granted under this Order being
a licence which includes a
flying instructor's rating or an assistant flying instructor's rating
entitling him to give instruction
in flying the type of helicopter or
gyroplane being flown by night;
(iii) no person other than that specified in sub-paragraph (ii) above is
carried and
(iv) the helicopter or gyroplane is not flying for the purpose of public
transport or aerial work other than aerial work which
consists of the giving
of instruction in flying or the conducting of flying tests;
(e) subject to article 25(2) of
this Order, act as pilot in command of a balloon if:
(i) he is the holder of an
appropriate licence granted or rendered valid under this Order in all
respects save that he has not
within the immediately preceding 13 months
carried out as pilot in command 5 flights each of not less than 5 minutes
duration;
(ii) he so acts in accordance with instructions given by a person authorised
by the Governor to supervise flying in the type
of balloon being flown;
(iii) no person other than that specified in sub-paragraph (ii) above is
carried; and
(iv) the balloon is not flying for the purpose of public transport or aerial
work other than aerial work which consists of
the giving of instruction in
flying or the conducting of flying tests.
(3) Subject as aforesaid, a
person shall not act as a member of the flight crew required by or under this
Order to be carried in an aircraft registered in a country other than the
Territory unless:
(a) in the case of an aircraft
flying for the purpose of public transport or aerial work, he is the holder
of an appropriate
licence granted or rendered valid under the law of the
country in which the aircraft is registered or the State of the operator;
or
(b) in the case of any other aircraft, he is the holder of an appropriate
licence granted or rendered valid under the law of
the country in which the
aircraft is registered or under this Order, and the Governor does not in the
particular case give
a direction to the contrary.
(4) For the purposes of this
Part of this Order a licence granted under the law of a Contracting State
other than the Territory, purporting to authorise the holder thereof to act
as a member of the flight crew of an aircraft,
not being a licence purporting
to authorise him to act as a student pilot only, shall, unless the Governor
in the particular
case gives a direction to the contrary, be deemed to be a
licence rendered valid under this Order but does not entitle the holder:
(a) to act as a member of the
flight crew of any aircraft flying for the purpose of public transport or
aerial work or on any
flight in respect of which he receives remuneration for
his services as a member of the flight crew; or
(b) in the case of a pilot's licence, to act as pilot of any aircraft flying
in controlled airspace in circumstances requiring
compliance with the
Instrument Flight Rules or to give any instruction in flying.
(5)
(a) Notwithstanding the provisions
of paragraph (1), a person may, unless the certificate of airworthiness in
force in respect
of the aircraft otherwise requires, act as pilot of an
aircraft registered in the Territory for the purpose of undergoing training
or tests for the grant or renewal of a pilot's licence or for the inclusion,
renewal or extension of a rating therein without
being the holder of an
appropriate licence, if the conditions specified in sub-paragraph (b) are
complied with.
(b)
(i) No other person shall be
carried in the aircraft or in an aircraft being towed thereby except:
(aa) a person carried as a member
of the flight crew in compliance with this Order;
(bb) a person authorised by the Governor to witness the aforesaid training or
tests or to conduct the aforesaid tests; or
(cc) if the pilot in command of the aircraft is the holder of an appropriate
licence, a person carried for the purpose of being
trained or tested as a
member of the flight crew of an aircraft.
(ii) The person acting as the
pilot of the aircraft without being the holder of an appropriate licence
either:
(aa) within the period of six
months immediately preceding was serving as a qualified pilot of an aircraft
in any of Her Majesty's
naval, military or air forces, and his physical
condition has not, so far as he is aware, so deteriorated during that period
as to render him unfit for the licence for which he intends to qualify; or
(bb) holds a pilot's, a flight navigator's or a flight engineer's licence
granted under article 22 of this Order and the purpose
of the training or
test is to enable him to qualify under this Order for the grant of a pilot's
licence or for the inclusion
of an additional type in the aircraft rating in
his licence and he acts under the supervision of a person who is the holder
of an appropriate licence.
(6) Notwithstanding
paragraph (1), a person may act as a member of the flight crew (otherwise
than as
a pilot) of an aircraft registered in the Territory for the purposes
of undergoing training or tests for the grant or renewal
of a flight
navigator's or a flight engineer's licence or for the inclusion, renewal or
extension of a rating therein, without
being the holder of an appropriate
licence if he acts under the supervision and in the presence of another
person who is the
holder of the type of licence or rating for which the
person undergoing the training or tests is being trained or tested.
(7) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), a person may act
as a member of the flight crew of an aircraft registered
in the Territory
without being the holder of an appropriate licence if, in so doing, he is
acting in the course of his duty
as a member of any of Her Majesty's naval,
military or air forces.
(8) An appropriate licence for the purposes of this
article means a licence which entitles the holder
to perform the functions
which he undertakes in relation to the aircraft concerned and the flight on
which it is engaged.
(9) This article shall not require a licence to be
held by a person by reason of his acting as a member
of the flight crew of a
glider unless:
(a) he acts as a flight
radiotelephony operator otherwise than in accordance with paragraph
(2)(a)(i); or
(b) the flight is for the purpose of public transport or aerial work, other
than aerial work which consists of the giving of
instruction in flying or the
conducting of flying tests in a glider owned or operated by a flying club of
which the person
giving the instruction or conducting the test and the person
receiving the instruction or undergoing the test are both members.
(10) Notwithstanding
anything in this article:
(a) the holder of a licence
granted or rendered valid under this Order, being a licence endorsed to the
effect that the holder
does not satisfy in full the relevant international
standard, shall not act as a member of the flight crew of an aircraft
registered
in the Territory in or over the territory of a Contracting State
other than the Territory except in accordance with permission
granted by the
competent authorities of that State.
(b) the holder of a licence granted or rendered valid under the law of a
Contracting State other than the Territory, being
a licence endorsed as
aforesaid, shall not act as a member of the flight crew of any aircraft in or
over the Territory except
in accordance with permission granted by the
Governor, whether or not the licence is or is deemed to be rendered valid
under
this Order.
Grant, renewal and effect of flight crew licences
22. - (1)
(a) Subject to sub-paragraph (d),
the Governor shall grant licences, subject to such conditions as he thinks
fit, of any of
the classes specified in Part A of Schedule 8 to this Order
authorising the holder to act as a member of the flight crew of an
aircraft
registered in the Territory, upon his being satisfied that the applicant is a
fit person to hold the licence, and
is qualified by reason of his knowledge,
experience, competence, skill and physical and mental fitness to act in the
capacity
to which the licence relates, and for that purpose the applicant
shall furnish such evidence and undergo such examinations and
tests
(including in particular medical examinations) and undertake such courses of
training as the Governor may require of
him.
(b) A licence granted under this article shall not be valid unless it bears
thereon the ordinary signature of the holder in
ink.
(c) Subject to article 81 of this Order, a licence shall remain in force for
the period indicated in the licence, not exceeding
the period specified in
respect of a licence of that class in the said Schedule, and may be renewed
by the Governor from time
to time upon his being satisfied that the applicant
is a fit person and qualified as aforesaid. If no period is indicated in the
licence it shall remain in force, subject as aforesaid, for the lifetime of
the holder.
(d) A licence of any class shall not be granted to any person who is under
the minimum age specified for that class of licence
in Part A of the said
Schedule.
(2) The Governor may include
in a licence a rating, subject to such conditions as he thinks fit, of any
of
the classes specified in Part B of the said Schedule, upon his being
satisfied that the applicant is qualified as aforesaid
to act in the capacity
to which the rating relates, and such rating shall be deemed to form part of
the licence.
(3) Subject to any conditions of the licence and to
the provisions of this Order, a licence of any
class shall entitle the holder
to perform the functions specified in respect of that licence in Part A of
the said Schedule
under the heading 'Privileges' and a rating of any class
shall entitle the holder of the licence in which such rating is included
to
perform the functions specified in respect of that rating in Part B of the
said Schedule.
Maintenance of privileges of aircraft ratings in licences
23. - (1)
(a) Subject to sub-paragraphs (b)
and (c), the holder of a pilot's licence or a flight engineer's licence shall
not be entitled
to exercise the privileges of an aircraft rating contained in
the licence on a flight unless the licence bears a valid certificate
of test
or a valid certificate of experience in respect of the rating, which
certificate shall in either case be appropriate
to the functions he is to
perform on that flight in accordance with Part C of Schedule 8 to this Order
and shall otherwise
comply with that Part.
(b) The holder of a Private Pilot's Licence (Balloons and Airships) shall be
entitled to exercise the privileges of an aircraft
rating contained in the
licence on a flight when the licence does not bear such a certificate.
(c) The holder of a Private Pilot's Licence shall not be entitled to exercise
the privileges of an aircraft rating contained
in the licence on a flight
unless the certificate of test or certificate of experience required by
sub-paragraph (a) is included
in the personal flying log book required to be
kept by him under article 28 of this Order.
(2) The holder of a flight
navigator's licence shall not be entitled to perform functions on a flight to
which article 20(4) of this Order applies unless the licence bears a valid
certificate of experience which certificate shall
be appropriate to the
functions he is to perform on that flight in accordance with Part C of the
said Schedule and shall otherwise
comply with that Part.
Maintenance of privileges of other ratings in licences
24. A person shall not be entitled to perform the
functions to which an instrument rating (aeroplanes), an instrument rating
(helicopters),
a flying instructor's rating, an assistant flying instructor's
rating, or an instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes)
relates unless his licence bears a valid certificate of test, which
certificate shall be appropriate to the functions to which
the rating relates
in accordance with Part C of Schedule 8 to this Order and shall otherwise
comply with that Part.
Medical requirements for licence holders
25. - (1)
(a) The holder of a licence
granted under article 22, other than a Flight Radiotelephony Operator's
Licence, shall not be entitled
to perform any of the functions to which his
licence relates unless it includes an appropriate valid medical certificate.
(b) Every applicant for or holder of a licence granted under article 22 shall
upon such occasions as the Governor may require
submit himself to medical
examination by a person approved by the Governor, either generally or in a
particular case or class
of cases, who shall make a report to the Governor in
such form as the Governor may require.
(c) On the basis of such medical examination, the Governor or any person
approved by him as competent to do so may issue a
medical certificate subject
to such conditions as he thinks fit to the effect that he has assessed the
holder of the licence
as fit to perform the functions to which the licence
relates, and the certificate shall, without prejudice to paragraph (2) of
this article, be valid for such period as is therein specified and shall be
deemed to form part of the licence.
(2)
(a) A person shall not be entitled
to act as a member of the flight crew of an aircraft registered in the
Territory if he knows
or suspects that his physical or mental condition
renders him temporarily or permanently unfit to perform such functions or to
act in such capacity.
(b) Every holder of a medical certificate issued under this article who:
(i) suffers any personal injury
involving incapacity to undertake his functions as a member of the flight
crew;
(ii) suffers any illness involving incapacity to undertake those functions
throughout a period of 21 days or more; or
(iii) in the case of a woman, has reason to believe that she is pregnant;
shall inform the Governor in
writing of such injury, illness or pregnancy, as soon as possible in the case
of injury or pregnancy,
and as soon as the period of 21 days has expired in
the case of illness. The medical certificate shall be deemed to be suspended
upon the occurrence of such injury or the expiry of such period of illness or
the confirmation of the pregnancy, and
(aa) in the case of injury or
illness the suspension shall cease upon the holder being medically examined
under arrangements
made by the Governor and pronounced fit to resume his
functions as a member of the flight crew or upon the Governor exempting,
subject to such conditions as he thinks fit, the holder from the requirement
of a medical examination; and
(bb) in the case of pregnancy, the suspension may be lifted by the Governor
for such period and subject to such conditions
as he thinks fit and shall
cease upon the holder being medically examined under arrangements made by the
Governor after the
pregnancy has ended and pronounced fit to resume her
functions as a member of the flight crew.
Miscellaneous licensing provisions
26. - (1) A person who, on the last occasion
when he took a test for the purposes of articles 23 or 24, failed that test
shall not be entitled to fly in the capacity for which that test would have
qualified him had he passed it.
(2) Nothing in this Order shall prohibit the holder
of a pilot's licence from acting as pilot of an
aircraft certificated for
single pilot operation when, with the permission of the Governor he is
testing any person for the
purposes of articles 22(1), 22(2), 23 or 24,
notwithstanding that the type of aircraft in which the test is conducted is
not
specified in an aircraft rating included in his licence or that the
licence or personal flying log book, as the case may be, does
not include a
valid certificate of test, experience or revalidation in respect of the type
of aircraft.
(3) Where any provision of Part C of Schedule 8 or
Part B of Schedule 10 to this Order permits a test
to be conducted in a
flight simulator approved by the Governor, that approval may be granted
subject to such conditions as
the Governor thinks fit.
(4) Without prejudice to any other provision of this
Order the Governor may, for the purpose of this
Part of this Order, either
absolutely or subject to such conditions as he thinks fit:
(a) approve any course of training
or instruction;
(b) authorise a person to conduct such examinations or tests as he may
specify; and
(c) approve a person to provide any course of training or instruction.
Validation of Licences
27. The Governor may issue a certificate of validation
rendering valid for the purpose of this Order any flight crew licence granted
under the law of any country other than the Territory. A certificate of
validation may be issued subject to such conditions
and for such periods as
the Governor thinks fit.
Personal flying log book
28. - (1) Every member of the flight crew of
an aircraft registered in the Territory and every person who engages in
flying for the purpose of qualifying for the grant or renewal of a licence
under this Order shall keep a personal flying log
book in which the following
particulars shall be recorded:
(a) the name and address of the
holder of the log book;
(b) particulars of the holder's licence (if any) to act as a member of the
flight crew of an aircraft; and
(c) the name and address of his employer (if any).
(2) Particulars of each
flight during which the holder of the log book acted either as a member of
the
flight crew of an aircraft or for the purpose of qualifying for the grant
or renewal of a licence under this Order, as the case
may be, shall be
recorded in the log book at the end of each flight or as soon thereafter as
is reasonably practicable, including:
(a) the date, the places at which
the holder embarked on and disembarked from the aircraft and the time spent
during the course
of a flight when he was acting in either capacity;
(b) the type and registration marks of the aircraft;
(c) the capacity in which the holder acted in flight;
(d) particulars of any special condition under which the flight was
conducted, including night flying and instrument flying;
and
(e) particulars of any test or examination undertaken whilst in flight.
(3) For the purposes of this
article, a helicopter shall be deemed to be in flight from the moment the
helicopter first moves under its own power for the purpose of taking off
until the rotors are next stopped.
(4) Particulars of any test or examination undertaken
whilst in a flight simulator shall be recorded
in the log book, including:
(a) the date of the test or
examination;
(b) the type of simulator;
(c) the capacity in which the holder acted; and
(d) the nature of the test or examination.
Instruction in flying
29. - (1) A person shall not give any
instruction in flying to which this article applies unless:
(a) he holds a licence, granted or
rendered valid under this Order entitling him to act as pilot in command of
the aircraft
for the purpose and in the circumstances under which the
instruction is to be given; and
(b) his licence includes an instructor's rating or an assistant flying
instructor's rating entitling the holder to give the
instruction.
(2) Subject to paragraph
(3), this article applies to instruction in flying given to any person flying
or about to fly a flying machine or glider for the purpose of becoming
qualified for:
(a) the grant of a pilot's
licence; and
(b) the inclusion or variation of any rating in his licence.
(3) This article shall not
apply to any instruction in flying given to a person for the purpose of
becoming
qualified for the inclusion in his licence of an aircraft rating
entitling him to act as pilot of a multi-engined aircraft, or
an aircraft of
any class appearing in column 4 of the Table in Part A of Schedule 2 to this
Order, if that person has previously
been entitled under this Order or
qualified in any of Her Majesty's naval, military or air forces, to act as
pilot of multi-engined
aircraft or an aircraft of that class, as the case may
be.
Glider pilot-minimum age
30. A person under the age of 16 years shall not act as
pilot in command of a glider.
PART V
Operation of Aircraft
Operations manual
31. - (1)
(a) Subject to sub-paragraph (b),
this article shall apply to public transport aircraft registered in the
Territory except aircraft
used for the time being solely for flights not
intended to exceed 60 minutes in duration, which are either:
(i) flights solely for training
persons to perform duties in an aircraft; or
(ii) flights intended to begin and end at the same aerodrome.
(b) This article shall not apply
to an aircraft flying or intended by the operator of the aircraft to fly
solely under and in
accordance with the terms of a police air operator's
certificate.
(2)
(a) The operator of every aircraft
to which this article applies shall:
(i) make available to each member
of his operating staff an operations manual;
(ii) ensure that each copy of the operations manual is kept up to date; and
(iii) ensure that on each flight every member of the crew has access to a
copy of every part of the operations manual which
is relevant to his duties
on the flight.
(b)
(i) Subject to sub-paragraph (ii),
each operations manual shall contain all such information and instructions as
may be necessary
to enable the operating staff to perform their duties as
such including in particular information and instructions relating to
the
matters specified in Part A of Schedule 10 to this Order.
(ii) The operations manual shall not be required to contain any information
or instructions available in a flight manual accessible
to the persons by
whom the information or instructions may be required.
(3)
(a) An aircraft to which this
article applies shall not fly unless, not less than 30 days prior to such
flight, the operator
of the aircraft has furnished to the Governor a copy of
the whole of the operations manual for the time being in effect in respect
of
the aircraft.
(b) Subject to sub-paragraph (c), any amendments or additions to the
operations manual shall be furnished to the Governor by
the operator before
or immediately after they come into effect.
(c) Where an amendment or addition relates to the operation of an aircraft to
which the operations manual did not previously
relate, that aircraft shall
not fly for the purpose of public transport until the amendment or addition
has been furnished
to the Governor.
(d) Without prejudice to the foregoing sub-paragraphs, the operator shall
make such amendments or additions to the operations
manual as the Governor
may require for the purpose of ensuring the safety of the aircraft or of
persons or property carried
therein or the safety, efficiency or regularity
of air navigation.
(4) For the purposes of this
article, article 32, article 58 of and Schedule 10 to this Order,
"operating
staff" means the servants and agents employed by the
operator, whether or not as members of the crew of the aircraft, to
ensure
that the flights of the aircraft are conducted in a safe manner, and includes
an operator who himself performs those
functions.
(5) If in the course of a flight on which the
equipment specified in Scale O in paragraph 5 of Schedule
4 hereto is
required to be provided the said equipment becomes unserviceable, the
aircraft shall be operated on the remainder
of that flight in accordance with
any relevant instructions in the operations manual.
Police operations manual
32. - (1) This article shall apply to
aircraft flying, or intended by the operator, of the aircraft to fly, under
and
in accordance with the terms of a police air operator's certificate.
(2) An aircraft to which this article applies shall
not fly except under and in accordance with the
terms of Part I and Part II
of a police operations manual, Part I of which shall have been approved in
respect of the aircraft
by the Governor.
(3)
(a) The operator of every aircraft
to which this article applies shall:
(i) make available to each member
of its operating staff a police operations manual;
(ii) ensure that each copy of the operations manual is kept up to date; and
(iii) ensure that on each flight every member of the crew has access to a
copy of every part of the operations manual which
is relevant to his duties
on the flight.
(b) Each police operations manual
shall contain all such information and instructions as may be necessary to
enable the operating
staff to perform their duties as such.
(4) The Governor may approve
Part I of the police operations manual for the purposes of this article
either absolutely or subject to such conditions as he thinks fit.
(5)
(a) An aircraft to which this
article applies shall not fly unless, not less than 30 days prior to such
flight, the operator
of the aircraft has furnished to the Governor a copy of
Part II of the police operations manual for the time being in effect in
respect of the aircraft.
(b) Subject to sub-paragraph (c), any amendments or additions to Part II of
the police operations manual shall be furnished
to the Governor by the
operator before or immediately after they come into effect.
(c) Where an amendment or addition relates to the operation of an aircraft to
which the police operations manual did not previously
relate, that aircraft
shall not fly in the service of the police authority under and in accordance
with the terms of a police
operator's certificate until the amendment or
addition has been furnished to the Governor.
(6) Without prejudice to the
foregoing paragraphs, the operator shall make such amendments or additions
to
the police operations manual as the Governor may require for the purpose of
ensuring the safety of the aircraft, or of persons
or property carried
therein, or the safety, efficiency or regularity of air navigation.
(7) For the purposes of this article "operating
staff" has the meaning ascribed to it in
article 31(4) of this Order.
Training manual
33. - (1) Subject to paragraph (2), the
operator of every aircraft registered in the Territory and flying for the
purpose
of public transport shall:
(a) make a training manual
available to every person appointed by the operator to give or to supervise
the training, experience,
practice or periodical tests required under article
34(3) of this Order; and
(b) ensure that each copy of that training manual is kept up to date.
(2) This article shall not
apply to aircraft flying, or intended by the operator of the aircraft to fly,
solely under and in accordance with the terms of a police air operator's
certificate.
(3) Each training manual shall contain all such
information and instructions as may be necessary to
enable a person appointed
by the operator to give or to supervise the training, experience, practice
and periodical tests required
under article 34(3) of this Order to perform his
duties as such including in particular information and instruction relating
to the matters specified in Part C of Schedule 10 to this Order.
(4)
(a) An aircraft to which this
article applies shall not fly unless not less than 30 days prior to such
flight the operator of
the aircraft has furnished to the Governor a copy of
the whole of his training manual relating to the crew of that aircraft.
(b) Subject to sub-paragraph (c), any amendments or additions to the training
manual shall be furnished to the Governor by
the operator before or
immediately after they come into effect.
(c) Where an amendment or addition relates to training, experience, practice
or periodical tests on an aircraft to which the
training manual did not
previously relate, that aircraft shall not fly for the purpose of public
transport until the amendment
or addition has been furnished to the Governor.
(d) Without prejudice to the foregoing sub-paragraphs, the operator shall
make such amendments or additions to the training
manual as the Governor may
require for the purpose of ensuring the safety of the aircraft, or of persons
or property carried
therein, or the safety, efficiency or regularity of air
navigation.
Public transport-operator's responsibilities
34. - (1) The operator of an aircraft
registered in the Territory shall not permit the aircraft to fly for the
purpose
of public transport without first:
(a) designating from among the
flight crew a pilot to be the commander of the aircraft for the flight;
(b) satisfying himself by every reasonable means that the aeronautical radio
stations and navigational aids serving the intended
route or any planned
diversion therefrom are adequate for the safe navigation of the aircraft; and
(c) subject to sub-paragraph (2) hereof, satisfying himself by every
reasonable means that every place (whether or not an aerodrome)
at which it
is intended to take off or land and any alternate place (whether or not an
aerodrome) at which a landing may be
made are suitable for the purpose and in
particular that they will be adequately manned and equipped at the time at
which it
is reasonably estimated such a take-off or landing will be made
(including such manning and equipment as is specified in regulation
16 in
Schedule 14 to this Order) to ensure so far as practicable the safety of the
aircraft and its passengers.
(2) Without prejudice to any
conditions imposed pursuant to article 6 of this Order, the operator of an
aircraft shall not be required for the purposes of this article to satisfy himself
as to the adequacy of fire-fighting, search,
rescue or other services which
are required only after the occurrence of an accident.
(3) The operator of an aircraft registered in the
Territory shall not permit any person to be a member
of the crew thereof
during any flight for the purpose of public transport (except a flight for
the sole purpose of training
persons to perform duties in aircraft) unless:
(a) such person has had the
training, experience, practice and periodical tests specified in Part B of
Schedule 10 to this Order
in respect of the duties which he is to perform;
and
(b) the operator has satisfied himself that such person is competent to
perform his duties, and in particular to use the equipment
provided in the
aircraft for that purpose.
(4) The operator shall
maintain, preserve, produce and furnish information respecting records
relating
to the matters specified in paragraph (3) in accordance with Part B
of the said Schedule 10.
(5) The operator of an aircraft registered in the
Territory shall not permit any member of the flight
crew thereof, during any
flight for the purpose of the public transport of passengers, to simulate
emergency manoeuvres and
procedures which the operator has reason to believe
will adversely affect the flight characteristics of the aircraft.
Loading-public transport aircraft and suspended loads
35. - (1) The operator of an aircraft
registered in the Territory shall not cause or permit it to be loaded for a
flight
for the purpose of public transport, or any load to be suspended
therefrom, except under the supervision of a person whom he has
caused to be
furnished with written instructions as to the distribution and securing of
the load so as to ensure that:
(a) the load may safely be carried
on the flight; and
(b) any conditions subject to which the certificate of airworthiness in force
in respect of the aircraft was issued or rendered
valid, being conditions
relating to the loading of the aircraft, are complied with.
(2)
(a) Subject to sub-paragraph (b),
the instruction shall indicate the weight of the aircraft prepared for
service, that is to
say the aggregate of the weight of the aircraft (shown in
the weight schedule referred to in article 18 of this Order) and the
weight
of such additional items in or on the aircraft as the operator thinks fit to
include; and the instructions shall indicate
the additional items included in
the weight of the aircraft prepared for service, and show the position of the
centre of gravity
of the aircraft at that weight.
(b) Sub-paragraph (a) shall not apply in relation to a flight if:
(i) the aircraft's maximum total
weight authorised does not exceed 1150 kg;
(ii) the aircraft's maximum total weight authorised does not exceed 2730 kg
and the flight is intended not to exceed 60 minutes
in duration and is
either:
(aa) a flight solely for training
persons to perform duties in an aircraft; or
(bb) a flight intended to begin and end at the same aerodrome; or
(iii) the aircraft is a helicopter
the maximum total weight authorised of which does not exceed 3000 kg, and the
total seating
capacity of which does not exceed five persons.
(3) The operator of an
aircraft shall not cause or permit it to be loaded in contravention of the
instructions
referred to in paragraph (1).
(4)
(a) Subject to sub-paragraph (b),
the person supervising the loading of the aircraft shall, before the
commencement of any such
flight, prepare and sign a load sheet in duplicate
conforming to the requirements specified in regulation 2 in Schedule 14 to
this Order, and shall (unless he is himself the commander of the aircraft)
submit the load sheet for examination by the commander
of the aircraft who
shall sign his name thereon.
(b) The requirements of sub-paragraph (a) shall not apply if:
(i) the load and the distributing
and securing thereof upon the next intended flight are to be unchanged from
the previous flight
and the commander of the aircraft makes and signs an
endorsement to that effect upon the load sheet for the previous flight,
indicating the date of the endorsement, the place of departure upon the next
intended flight and the next intended place of
destination; or
(ii) paragraph (2)(a) does not apply in relation to the flight.
(5)
(a) Subject to sub-paragraph (b),
one copy of the load sheet shall be carried in the aircraft when article 76
of this Order
so requires until the flights to which it relates have been
completed and one copy of that load sheet and of the instructions
referred to
in this article shall be preserved by the operator until the expiration of a
period of six months thereafter and
shall not be carried in the aircraft.
(b) In the case of an aeroplane of which the maximum total weight authorised
does not exceed 2730 kg, or a helicopter, if it
is not reasonably practicable
for the copy of the load sheet to be kept on the ground it may be carried in
the aeroplane or
helicopter, as the case may be, in a container approved by
the Governor for that purpose.
(6) The operator of an
aircraft registered in the Territory and flying for the purpose of the public
transport of passengers shall not cause or permit baggage to be carried in
the passenger compartment of the aircraft unless such
baggage can be properly
secured and, in the case of an aircraft capable of seating more than 30
passengers, such baggage (other
than baggage carried in accordance with a
permission issued pursuant to article 45(2)(d) of this Order) shall not
exceed the
capacity of the spaces in the passenger compartment approved by
the Governor for the purpose of stowing baggage.
Public transport-operating conditions
36. - (1) An aircraft registered in the
Territory shall not fly for the purpose of public transport, except for the
sole purpose of training persons to perform duties in aircraft unless the
relevant requirements specified in regulations 3 to
13 inclusive in Schedule
14 to this Order in respect of its weight and related performance and flight
in specified meteorological
conditions or at night are complied with.
(2)
(a) The assessment of the ability
of an aircraft to comply with paragraph (1) shall be based on the information
as to its performance
contained in the certificate of airworthiness relating
to the aircraft.
(b) In the event of the information given therein being insufficient for that
purpose such assessment shall be based on the
best information available to
the commander of the aircraft.
(3) A flying machine
registered in the Territory when flying over water for the purpose of public
transport
shall fly, except as may be necessary for the purpose of take-off
or landing, at such an altitude as would enable the aircraft:
(a) if it has one engine only, in
the event of the failure of that engine; or
(b) if it has more than one engine, in the event of the failure of one of
those engines and with the remaining engine or engines
operating within the
maximum continuous power conditions specified in the certificate of
airworthiness relating to the aircraft;
to reach a place at which it can safely land at a
height sufficient to enable it to do so.
(4)
(a) Without prejudice to paragraph
(3), an aeroplane in respect of which there is in force under this Order a
certificate of
airworthiness designating the aeroplane as being of
performance group X shall not fly over water for the purpose of public
transport so as to be more than 60 minutes flying time from the nearest
shore, unless the aeroplane has more than 2 power units.
(b) For the purposes of this paragraph, flying time shall be calculated at
normal cruising speed with one power unit inoperative.
(5)
(a) Without prejudice to paragraph
(3), a helicopter in respect of which there is in force under this Order a
certificate of
airworthiness designating the helicopter as being of
performance group B (in this paragraph call 'a group B helicopter') shall
not
fly over water for the purpose of public transport so as to be more than 20
seconds flying time from a point from which
it can make an autorotative
descent to land suitable for an emergency landing (in this paragraph called
'the specified circumstances')
unless it is equipped with apparatus approved
by the Governor enabling it to land safely on water (in this paragraph called
"the required apparatus").
(b) Without prejudice to paragraph (3), a group B helicopter equipped with
the required apparatus, which is flying under and
in accordance with the
terms of an air operator's certificate but not under and in accordance with
the terms of a police air
operator's certificate, shall not fly in the
specified circumstances on any flight for more than three minutes except with
the permission in writing of the Governor and in accordance with any
conditions subject to which that permission may have been
granted.
(c) Without prejudice to paragraph (3), a group B helicopter equipped with
the required apparatus which is flying under and
in accordance with the terms
of a police air operator's certificate on which is carried any passenger who
is not a permitted
passenger, shall not fly in the specified circumstances on
any flight for more than 20 minutes.
(d) Without prejudice to paragraph (3), a group B helicopter equipped with
the required apparatus which is flying under and
in accordance with the terms
of a police air operator's certificate on which no passenger is carried other
than a permitted
passenger, shall not fly over water on any flight for more
than 10 minutes so as to be more than 5 minutes from a point from which
it
can make an autorotative descent to land suitable for an emergency landing.
(e) For the purposes of this paragraph flying time shall be calculated on the
assumption that a helicopter is flying in still
air at the speed specified in
the certificate of airworthiness in force in respect of the helicopter as the
speed for compliance
with regulations governing flights over water.
(6)
(a) Without prejudice to paragraph
(3), a helicopter in respect of which there is in force under this Order a
certificate of
airworthiness designating the helicopter as being of
performance group A2 (in this paragraph called 'a group A2 helicopter'),
which is flying under and in accordance with the terms of an air operator's
certificate but not under and in accordance with
the terms of a police air
operator's certificate, shall not fly over water for the purpose of public
transport for more than
15 minutes during any flight unless it is equipped
with apparatus approved by the Governor enabling it to land safely on water
(in this paragraph called "the required apparatus").
(b) Without prejudice to paragraph (3), a group A2 helicopter not equipped
with the required apparatus which is flying under
and in accordance with the
terms of a police air operator's certificate on which any passenger is
carried who is not a permitted
passenger shall not fly over any water on any
flight for more than 15 minutes.
(7) Notwithstanding the
provisions of paragraph (1), a helicopter in respect of which there is in
force
under this Order a certificate of airworthiness designating the
helicopter as being of performance group A or performance group
A (Restricted)
may fly for the purpose of public transport in accordance with the weight and
related performance requirements
prescribed for helicopters designated as
being of:
(a) performance group A
(Restricted) in the case of a helicopter designated as being of performance
group A if:
(i) the maximum total weight
authorised of the helicopter is less the 5700 kg; and
(ii) the total number of passengers carried on the helicopter does not exceed
15; or
(b) performance group B if:
(i) the maximum total weight authorised
of the helicopter is less than 2730 kg; and
(ii) the total number of passengers carried does not exceed 9.
(8) For the purposes of this
article a "permitted passenger" means:
(a) a police officer;
(b) an employee of the police authority;
(c) a medical attendant;
(d) the holder of a valid pilot's licence who intends to act as a member of
the flight crew of an aircraft flying under and
in accordance with the terms
of a police air operator's certificate and who is being carried for the
purpose of training or
familiarisation; or
(e) such other person being carried for purposes connected with police
operations as may be permitted in writing by the Governor.
Public transport operations at night or in
instrument meteorological conditions by single engined aeroplanes not
registered
in the Territory
37. An aeroplane which is not registered in the
Territory and is powered by one engine only shall not fly for the purpose of
public
transport at night or when the cloud ceiling or visibility prevailing
at the aerodrome of departure and forecast for the estimated
time of landing
at the aerodrome at which it is intended to land and at any alternate
aerodrome are less than 1,000 feet and
1 nautical mile respectively.
Public transport aircraft registered in the
Territory - aerodrome operating minima
38. - (1) This article shall apply to public
transport aircraft registered in the Territory.
(2)
(a) Subject to sub-paragraph (b),
the operator of every aircraft to which this article applies shall establish
and include in
the operations manual or the police operations manual relating
to the aircraft the particulars (in this sub-paragraph called "the
said
particulars") of the aerodrome operating minima appropriate to every
aerodrome of intended departure or landing and
every alternate aerodrome.
(b) in relation to any flight wherein:
(i) neither an operations manual
nor a police operations manual is required pursuant to article 31(2)(a) or
32(3)(a) respectively
of this Order; or
(ii) it is not practicable to include the said particulars in the operations
manual or the police operations manual;
the operator of the said aircraft
shall, prior to the commencement of the flight, cause to be furnished in
writing to the commander
of the aircraft the said particulars calculated in
accordance with the required data and instructions (as defined in
sub-paragraph
(c)(i)) and the operator shall cause a copy of the said
particulars to be retained outside the aircraft for a minimum period of
three
months.
(c)
(i) The operator of every aircraft
to which this article applies for which an operations manual or a police
operations manual
is required pursuant to article 31(2)(a) or 32(3)(a)
respectively of this Order, shall include in that operations manual such
data
and instructions (in this article called "the required data and
instructions") as will enable the commander
of the aircraft to calculate
the aerodrome operating minima appropriate to aerodromes the use of which
cannot reasonably have
been foreseen by the operator prior to the
commencement of the flight.
(ii) The operator of every such aircraft to which this article applies for
which neither an operations manual nor a police
operations manual is required
pursuant to article 31(2)(a) or 32(3)(a) respectively of this Order shall,
prior to the commencement
of the flight, cause to be furnished in writing to
the commander of the aircraft the required data and instructions, and the
operator shall cause a copy of the required data and instructions to be
retained outside the aircraft for a minimum period of
three months.
(3) The specified aerodrome
operating minima shall not permit a landing or take-off in circumstances
where the relevant aerodrome operating minima declared by the competent
authority would prohibit it, unless that authority otherwise
permits in
writing.
(4) In establishing aerodrome operating minima for
the purposes of this article the operator of the
aircraft shall take into
account the following matters:
(a) the type and performance and
handling characteristics of the aircraft and any relevant conditions in its
certificate of
airworthiness;
(b) the composition of its crew;
(c) the physical characteristics of the relevant aerodrome and its
surroundings;
(d) the dimensions of the runways which may be selected for use; and
(e) whether or not there are in use at the relevant aerodrome any aids,
visual or otherwise, to assist aircraft in approach,
landing or take-off,
being aids which the crew of the aircraft are trained and equipped to use; the
nature of any such aids
that are in use; and the procedures for approach,
landing and take-off which may be adopted according to the existence or
absence
of such aids;
and shall establish in relation to each runway which
may be selected for use such aerodrome operating minima as are appropriate
to
each set of circumstances which can reasonably be expected.
(5) An aircraft to which this article applies shall
not commence a flight at a time when:
(a) the cloud ceiling or the
runway visual range at the aerodrome of departure is less than the relevant
minimum specified for
take-off; or
(b) according to the information available to the commander of the aircraft
it would not be able, without contravening paragraphs
(6) or (7), to land at
the aerodrome of intended destination at the estimated time of arrival there
and at any alternate aerodrome
at any time at which according to a reasonable
estimate the aircraft would arrive there.
(6) An aircraft to which
article 31 of this Order applies, when making a descent to an aerodrome,
shall
not descend from a height of 1000 ft or more above the aerodrome to a
height less than 1000 ft above the aerodrome if the relevant
runway visual
range at the aerodrome is at the time less than the specified minimum for
landing.
(7) An aircraft to which this article applies, when
making a descent to an aerodrome, shall not:
(a) continue an approach to
landing at any aerodrome by flying below the relevant specified decision
height; or
(b) descend below the relevant specified minimum descent height;
unless in either case from such height the specified
visual reference for landing is established and is maintained.
(8) If, according to the information available, an
aircraft would as regards any flight be required
by the Rules of the Air to
be flown in accordance with the Instrument Flight Rules at the aerodrome of
intended landing, the
commander of the aircraft shall select prior to
take-off an alternate aerodrome unless no aerodrome suitable for that purpose
is available.
(9) In this article "specified" in relation
to aerodrome operating minima means such particulars
of aerodrome operating
minima as have been specified by the operator in, or are ascertainable by
reference to, the operations
manual relating to that aircraft, or furnished
in writing to the commander of the aircraft by the operator pursuant to
sub-paragraphs
(2)(b) or (2)(c)(ii).
Public transport aircraft not registered in the
Territory - aerodrome operating minima
39. - (1) This article shall apply to public
transport aircraft registered in a country other than the Territory.
(2) An aircraft to which this article applies shall
not fly in or over the Territory unless the operator
thereof has made
available to the flight crew aerodrome operating minima which comply with
paragraph (3) in respect of every
aerodrome at which it is intended to land
or take off and every alternate aerodrome.
(3) The aerodrome operating minima provided in
accordance with paragraph (2) shall be no less restrictive
than either:
(a) minima calculated in
accordance with the notified method for calculating aerodrome operating
minima; or
(b) minima which comply with the law of the country in which the aircraft is
registered,
whichever, are the more restrictive.
(4)
(a) An aircraft to which this
article applies shall not:
(i) conduct a Category II,
Category IIIA or Category IIIB approach and landing; or
(ii) takeoff when the relevant runway visual range is less than 150 metres,
otherwise than under and in accordance with the
terms of an approval granted
by the Governor.
(b) An approval granted pursuant
to sub-paragraph (a) shall be in writing and may be granted subject to such
conditions as the
Governor thinks fit.
(5) An aircraft to which
this article applies shall not take off or land at an aerodrome in the
Territory
in contravention of the specified aerodrome operating minima.
(6) Without prejudice to the provisions of paragraphs
(4) and (5), an aircraft to which this article
applies, when making a descent
to an aerodrome, shall not descend from a height of 1000 feet or more above
the aerodrome to
a height of less than 1000 feet above the aerodrome if the
relevant runway visual range at the aerodrome is at the time less than
the
specified minimum for landing.
(7) Without prejudice to the provisions of paragraphs
(4) and (5), an aircraft to which this article
applies, when making a descent
to an aerodrome, shall not:
(a) continue an approach to
landing at any aerodrome by flying below the relevant specified decision
height; or
(b) descend below the relevant specified minimum descent height, unless in
either case from such height the specified visual
reference for landing is
established and is maintained.
(8) In this article:
(a) "specified" means specified
by the operator in the aerodrome operating minima made available to the
flight crew
pursuant to paragraph (2);
(b) "a Category II approach and landing" means a landing following
a precision approach using an Instrument Landing
System or Microwave Landing
System with:
(i) a decision height lower than
200 feet but not less than 100 feet; and
(ii) a runway visual range of not less than 300 metres;
(c) "a Category IIIA approach
and landing" means landing following a precision approach using an
Instrument Landing
System or Microwave Landing System with:
(i) a decision height lower than
100 feet; and
(ii) a runway visual range of not less than 200 metres; and
(d) "a Category IIIB approach
and landing" means a landing following a precision approach using an
Instrument Landing
System or Microwave Landing System with:
(i) a decision height lower than
50 feet or no decision height; and
(ii) a runway visual range less than 200 metre but not less than 75 metres.
Non-public transport aircraft - aerodrome
operating minima
40. - (1) This article shall apply to any
aircraft which is not a public transport aircraft.
(2) An aircraft to which this article applies when
making a descent at an aerodrome to a runway in
respect of which there is a
notified instrument approach procedure shall not descend from a height of
1000 ft or more above
the aerodrome to a height less than 1000 ft above the
aerodrome if the relevant runway visual range for that runway is at the
time
less than the specified minimum for landing.
(3) An aircraft to which this article applies when
making a descent to a runway in respect of which
there is a notified
instrument approach procedure shall not:
(a) continue an approach to
landing on such a runway by flying below the relevant specified decision
height; or
(b) descend below the relevant specified minimum descent height;
unless in either case from such height the specified
visual reference for landing is established and is maintained.
(4) In this article "specified" in relation
to aerodrome operating minima means such particulars
of aerodrome operating
minima as have been notified in respect of the aerodrome or if the relevant
minima have not been notified
such minima as are ascertainable by reference
to the notified method for calculating aerodrome operating minima.
Pilots to remain at controls
41. - (1)
(a) The commander of a flying
machine or glider registered in the Territory shall cause one pilot to remain
at the controls
at all times while it is in flight.
(b) If the flying machine or glider is required by or under this Order to
carry two pilots, the commander shall cause both
pilots to remain at the
controls during take-off and landing.
(c) If the flying machine or glider carries two or more pilots (whether or
not it is required to do so) and is engaged on a
flight for the purpose of
the public transport of passengers, the commander shall remain at the
controls during take-off and
landing.
(2) Each pilot at the
controls shall be secured in his seat by either a safety belt with or without
one diagonal shoulder strap, or a safety harness except that during take-off
and landing a safety harness shall be worn if it
is required by article 14 of
this Order to be provided.
Wearing of survival suits by crew
42. - (1) Subject to paragraph (2), each
member of the crew of an aircraft registered in the Territory shall wear a
survival suit if such a suit is required by article 14 of this Order to be
carried.
(2) This article shall not apply to any member of the
crew of such an aircraft flying under and in
accordance with the terms of a
police air operator's certificate.
Pre-flight action by commander of aircraft
43. The commander of an aircraft registered in the
Territory shall reasonably satisfy himself before the aircraft takes off:
(a) that the flight can safely be
made, taking into account the latest information available as to the route
and aerodrome to
be used, the weather reports and forecasts available and any
alternative course of action which can be adopted in case the flight
cannot
be completed as planned;
(b)
(i) that the equipment (including
radio apparatus) required by or under this Order to be carried in the
circumstances of the
intended flight is carried and is in a fit condition for
use; or
(ii) that the flight may commence under and in accordance with the terms of a
permission granted to the operator pursuant to
article 16 of this Order;
(c) that the aircraft is in every
way fit for the intended flight, and that where a certificate of maintenance
review is required
by article 10(1) of this Order to be in force, it is in
force and will not cease to be in force during the intended flight;
(d) that the load carried by the aircraft is of such weight, and is so
distributed and secured, that it may safely be carried
on the intended
flight;
(e) in the case of a flying machine or airship, that sufficient fuel, oil and
engine coolant (if required) are carried for
the intended flight, and that a
safe margin has been allowed for contingencies, and, in the case of a flight
for the purpose
of public transport, that the instructions in the operations
manual relating to fuel, oil and engine coolant have been complied
with;
(f) in the case of an airship or balloon, that sufficient ballast is carried
for the intended flight;
(g) in the case of a flying machine, that having regard to the performance of
the flying machine in the conditions to be expected
on the intended flight,
and to any obstructions at the places of departure and intended destination
and on the intended route,
it is capable of safely taking off, reaching and
maintaining a safe height thereafter and making a safe landing at the place
of intended destination; and
(h) that any pre-flight check system established by the operator and set
forth in the operations manual or elsewhere has been
complied with by each
member of the crew of the aircraft.
Passenger briefing by commander
44. - (1) Subject to paragraph (2), the
commander of an aircraft registered in the Territory shall take all reasonable
steps to ensure:
(a) before the aircraft takes off
on any flight, that all passengers are made familiar with the position and
method of use of
emergency exits, safety belts (with diagonal shoulder strap
where required to be carried), safety harnesses and (where required
to be
carried) oxygen equipment, lifejackets and the floor path lighting system and
all other devices required by or under
this Order and intended for use by
passengers individually in the case of an emergency occurring to the
aircraft; and
(b) that in an emergency during a flight, all passengers are instructed in
the emergency action which they should take.
(2) This article shall not
apply to the commander of an aircraft registered in the Territory in relation
to a flight under and in accordance with the terms of a police air operator's
certificate.
Public transport of passengers - additional duties of commander
45. - (1) This article applies to flights
for the purpose of the public transport of passengers by aircraft registered
in the Territory other than flights under and in accordance with the terms of
a police air operator's certificate.
(2) In relation to every flight to which this article
applies the commander of the aircraft shall:
(a)
(i) subject to sub-paragraph (iii),
if the aircraft is not a seaplane but is intended in the course of the flight
to reach a
point more than 30 minutes flying time (while flying in still air
at the speed specified in the relevant certificate of airworthiness
as the
speed for compliance with regulations governing flights over water) from the
nearest land, take all reasonable steps
to ensure that before take-off all
passengers are given a demonstration of the method of use of the lifejackets
required by
or under this Order for the use of passengers;
(ii) subject to sub-paragraph (iii), if the aircraft is not a seaplane but is
required by article 20(7) of this Order to carry
cabin attendants, take all
reasonable steps to ensure that, before the aircraft takes off on a flight:
(aa) which is intended to proceed
beyond gliding distance from land; or
(bb) on which in the event of any emergency occurring during the take-off or
during the landing at the intended destination
or any likely alternate
destination it is reasonably possible that the aircraft would be forced to
land onto water;
all passengers are given a
demonstration of the method of use of the lifejackets required by or under
this Order for the use
of passengers;
(iii) where the only requirement to give such a demonstration arises because
it is reasonably possible that the aircraft would
be forced to land onto
water at one or more of the likely alternate destinations the demonstration
need not be given until
after the decision has been taken to divert to such a
destination;
(b) if the aircraft is a seaplane,
take all reasonable steps to ensure that before the aircraft takes off all
passengers are
given a demonstration of the method of use of the equipment
referred to in the preceding sub-paragraph;
(c) before the aircraft takes off, and before it lands, take all reasonable
steps to ensure that the crew of the aircraft are
properly secured in their
seats and that any persons carried in compliance with article 20(7) of this
Order are properly secured
in seats which shall be in a passenger compartment
and which shall be so situated that those persons can readily assist
passengers;
(d) from the moment when, after the embarkation of its passengers for the
purpose of taking off, it first moves until after
it has taken off, and
before it lands until it comes to rest for the purpose of the disembarkation
of its passengers, and whenever
by reason of turbulent air or any emergency
occurring during the flight he considers the precaution necessary:
(i) take all reasonable steps to
ensure that all passengers of 2 years of age or more are properly secured in
their seats by
safety belts (with diagonal shoulder strap, where required to
be carried) or safety harnesses and that all passengers under the
age of 2
years are properly secured by means of a child restraint device; and
(ii) take all reasonable steps to ensure that those items of baggage in the
passenger compartment which he reasonably considers
ought by virtue of their
size, weight or nature to be properly secured are properly secured and, in the
case of an aircraft
capable of seating more than 30 passengers, that such
baggage is either stowed in the passenger compartment stowage spaces approved
by the Governor for the purpose or carried in accordance with the terms of a
written permission granted by the Governor which
permission may be granted
subject to such conditions as the Governor thinks fit;
(e) in the case of aircraft in
respect of which a certificate of airworthiness was first issued (whether in
the Territory or
elsewhere) on or after 1st January 1989 except in a case
where a pressure greater than 700 hectopascals is maintained in all passenger
and crew compartments throughout the flight, take all reasonable steps to
ensure that:
(i) before the aircraft reaches
flight level 100 the method of use of the oxygen provided in the aircraft in
compliance with
the requirements of article 14 of this Order is demonstrated
to all passengers;
(ii) when flying above flight level 120 all passengers and cabin attendants
are recommended to use oxygen; and
(iii) during any period when the aircraft is flying above flight level 100
oxygen is used by all the flight crew of the aircraft.
(f) in the case of aircraft in
respect of which a certificate of airworthiness was first issued (whether in
the Territory or
elsewhere) prior to 1st January 1989, except in the case
where a pressure greater than 700 hectopascals is maintained in all passenger
and crew compartments throughout the flight, take all reasonable steps to
ensure that:
(i)
(aa) before the aircraft reaches
flight level 130 of the method of use of the oxygen provided in the aircraft
in compliance
with the requirements of article 14 of this Order is
demonstrated to all passengers;
(bb) when flying above flight level 130 all passengers and cabin attendants
are recommended to use oxygen; and
(cc) during any period when the aircraft is flying above flight level 100
oxygen is used by all the flight crew of the aircraft;
or
(ii) he complies instead with the
provisions of sub-paragraph (e).
Operation of radio in aircraft
46. - (1) The radio station in an aircraft
shall not be operated, whether or not the aircraft is in flight, except in
accordance with the conditions of the licence issued in respect of that
station under the law of the country in which the aircraft
is registered or
the State of the operator and by a person duly licensed or otherwise
permitted to operate the radio station
under that law.
(2)
(a) Subject to sub-paragraph (b),
whenever an aircraft is in flight in such circumstances that it is required
by or under this
Order to be equipped with radio communications apparatus, a
continuous radio watch shall be maintained by a member of the flight
crew
listening to the signals transmitted upon the frequency notified, or
designated by a message received from an appropriate
aeronautical radio
station, for use by that aircraft.
(b)
(i) The radio watch may be
discontinued or continued on another frequency to the extent that a message
as aforesaid so permits.
(ii) The watch may be kept by a device installed in the aircraft if:
(aa) the appropriate aeronautical
radio station has been informed to that effect and has raised no objection;
and
(bb) that station is notified, or in the case of a station situated in a
country other than the Territory, otherwise designated
as transmitting a
signal suitable for that purpose.
(3) Whenever an aircraft is
in flight in such circumstances that it is required by or under this Order
to
be equipped with radio or radio navigation equipment a member of the flight
crew shall operate that equipment in such a
manner as he may be instructed by
the appropriate air traffic control unit or as may be notified in relation to
any notified
airspace in which the aircraft is flying.
(4) The radio station in an aircraft shall not be
operated so as to cause interference which impairs
the efficiency of
aeronautical telecommunications or navigational services, and in particular
emissions shall not be made except
as follows:
(a) emissions of the class and
frequency for the time being in use, in accordance with general international
aeronautical practice,
in the airspace in which the aircraft is flying;
(b) distress, urgency and safety messages and signals, in accordance with
general international aeronautical practice;
(c) messages and signals relating to the flight of the aircraft, in
accordance with general international aeronautical practice;
and
(d) such public correspondence messages as may be permitted by or under the
aircraft radio station licence referred to in paragraph
(1).
(5) In any flying machine
registered in the Territory which is engaged on a flight for the purpose of
public transport the pilot and the flight engineer (if any) shall not make
use of a hand-held microphone (whether for the purpose
of radio communication
or of intercommunication within the aircraft) whilst the aircraft is flying
in controlled airspace below
flight level 150 or is taking off or landing.
Minimum navigation performance
47. - (1) An aircraft registered in the
Territory shall not fly in North Atlantic Minimum Navigation Performance
Specification
airspace unless it is equipped with navigation systems which
enable the aircraft to maintain the navigation performance capability
specified in regulation 19(1) in Schedule 14 to this Order.
(2) The equipment required by paragraph (1) shall be
approved by the Governor, installed and maintained
in a manner approved by
the Governor and shall, while the aircraft is flying in the said airspace, be
operated in accordance
with procedures approved by the Governor.
(3) An approval granted by the Governor for the
purposes of this article shall be in writing and may
be subject to such
conditions as the Governor thinks fit.
Height keeping performance - aircraft registered in the Territory
48. - (1) Unless otherwise authorised by the
appropriate air traffic control unit, an aircraft registered in the Territory
shall not fly in reduced vertical separation minimum airspace notified for
the purpose of this article, unless it is equipped
with height keeping
systems which enable the aircraft to maintain the height keeping performance
capability specified in regulation
19(2) in Schedule 14 to this Order.
(2) The equipment required by paragraph (1) shall be
approved by the Governor, installed and maintained
in a manner approved by
the Governor and shall, while the aircraft is flying in the said airspace, be
operated in accordance
with procedures approved by the Governor.
(3) An approval granted by the Governor for the
purposes of this article shall be in writing and may
be subject to such
conditions as the Governor thinks fit.
Height keeping performance - aircraft not registered in the
Territory
49. Unless otherwise authorised by the appropriate air
traffic control unit an aircraft registered elsewhere than in the Territory
shall not fly in Territory reduced vertical separation minimum airspace
unless:
(a) it is so equipped with height
keeping systems as to comply with the law of the country in which the
aircraft is registered
insofar as that law requires it to be so equipped when
flying in any specified areas; and
(b) the said equipment is capable of being operated so as to enable the
aircraft to maintain the height keeping performance
notified in respect of
the airspace in which the aircraft is flying, and it is so operated.
Area navigation equipment - aircraft
registered in the Territory
50. - (1) An aircraft registered in the
Territory shall not fly in controlled airspace notified for the purposes or
this paragraph as an area navigation route or area unless:
(a) it is equipped with area
navigation equipment which is approved by the Governor in relation to the
purpose for which it
is to be used, and which is installed and maintained in
a manner approved by the Governor; and
(b) the said equipment is capable of being operated so as to enable the
aircraft to maintain the navigation accuracy notified
in respect of the
airspace in which the aircraft is flying, and it is so operated.
(2) An aircraft registered
in the Territory shall not, when flying in controlled airspace notified for
the purposes of this paragraph, not being an area navigation route or area,
be navigated by means of area navigation equipment
unless:
(a) the said equipment is approved
by the Governor in relation to the purpose for which it is to be used, and is
installed and
maintained in a manner approved by the Governor; and
(b) the said equipment is capable of being operated so as to enable the
aircraft to maintain the navigation accuracy notified
in respect of the
airspace in which the aircraft is flying, and it is so operated.
(3)
(a) For the purposes of this
article, an approval shall be in writing and may be subject to such
conditions as the Governor
thinks fit.
(b) An approval may be granted in respect of any aircraft or specified class
or category of aircraft or in respect of a specified
type or types of
equipment.
Area navigation equipment - aircraft not
registered in the Territory
51. - (1) An aircraft registered elsewhere
than in the Territory shall not fly in controlled airspace notified for the
purposes of paragraph (1) of article 50 unless:
(a) it is so equipped with area
navigation equipment as to comply with the law of the country in which the
aircraft is registered
insofar as that law requires it to be equipped when
flying within any specified areas; and
(b) the said equipment is capable of being operated so as to enable the
aircraft to maintain the navigation accuracy notified
in respect of the
airspace in which the aircraft is flying, and it is so operated.
(2) An aircraft registered
elsewhere than in the Territory shall not, when flying in controlled airspace
notified for the purposes of paragraph (2) of article 50, be navigated by
means of area navigation equipment unless:
(a) the said equipment complies
with the law of the country in which the aircraft is registered insofar as
that law requires
it to be so equipped when flying within any specified
areas; and
(b) the said equipment is capable of being operated so as to enable the
aircraft to maintain the navigation accuracy notified
in respect of the
airspace in which the aircraft is flying, and it is so operated.
Use of airborne collision avoidance system
52. On any flight on which an airborne collision
avoidance system is required by paragraph 1 of Schedule 5 to this Order to be
carried in an aeroplane, the system shall be operated:
(a) in the case of an aircraft to
which article 31 applies, in accordance with procedures contained in the
Operations Manual
for the aircraft;
(b) in the case of an aircraft registered in the Territory to which article
31 does not apply, in accordance with procedures
which are suitable having
regard to the purposes of the equipment; or
(c) in the case of an aircraft which is registered elsewhere than in the
Territory, in accordance with any procedures with
which it is required to
comply under the law of the country in which the aircraft is registered.
Use of flight recording systems and preservation of
records
53. - (1) On any flight on which a flight
data recorder, a cockpit voice recorder or a combined cockpit voice
recorder/flight
data recorder is required by paragraph 4(4), (5), (6) or (7)
of Schedule 4 to this Order to be carried in an aeroplane, it shall
always be
in use from the beginning of the take-off run to the end of the landing run.
(2) The operator of the aeroplane shall at all times,
subject to article 80 of this Order, preserve:
(a) the last 25 hours of recording
made by any flight data recorder required by or under this Order to be
carried in an aeroplane;
and
(b) a record of not less than one representative flight, that is to say, a
recording of a flight made within the last 12 months
which includes a
take-off, climb, cruise, descent, approach to landing and landing, together
with a means of identifying the
record with the flight to which it relates;
and shall preserve such records for such period as
the Governor may in a particular case direct.
(3) On any flight on which a cockpit voice recorder,
a flight data recorder or a combined cockpit voice
recorder/flight data
recorder is required by paragraph 4(16) of Schedule 4 to this Order to be
carried in a helicopter, it
shall always be in use from the time the rotors
first turn for the purpose of taking off until the rotors are next stopped.
(4) The operator of the helicopter shall at all
times, subject to article 80 of this Order, preserve:
(a) the last 8 hours of recording
made by any flight data recorder specified at sub-paragraph (i) or (ii) of
Scale SS of paragraph
5 of Schedule 4 to this Order and required by or under
this Order to be carried in the helicopter;
(b) in the case of a combined cockpit voice recorder/flight data recorder
specified at sub-paragraph (iii) of the said Scale
SS and required by or
under this Order to be carried in a helicopter either:
(i) the last 8 hours of recording;
or
(ii) the last 5 hours of recording or the duration of the last flight,
whichever is the greater, together with an additional
period of recording for
either:
(aa) the period immediately
preceding the last 5 hours of recording or the duration of the last flight,
whichever is the greater;
or
(bb) such period or periods as the Governor may permit in any particular case
or class of cases or generally.
(5) The additional recording
retained pursuant to sub-paragraphs (b)(ii)(aa) and (bb) of paragraph (4)
shall, together with the recording required to be retained pursuant to
sub-paragraph (b)(ii) of paragraph (4), total a period
of 8 hours and shall
be retained in accordance with arrangements approved by the Governor.
(6) An approval granted by the Governor for the
purposes of this article shall be in writing and may
be subject to such
conditions as the Governor thinks fit.
Towing of gliders
54. - (1) An aircraft in flight shall not
tow a glider unless the certificate of airworthiness issued or rendered valid
in respect of the towing aircraft under the law of the country in which that
aircraft is registered includes an express provision
that it may be used for
that purpose.
(2) The length of the combination of towing aircraft,
tow rope and glider in flight shall not exceed
150 metres.
(3) The commander of an aircraft which is about to
tow a glider shall satisfy himself, before the towing
aircraft takes off:
(a) that the tow rope is in good
condition and is of adequate strength for the purpose, and that the
combination of towing aircraft
and glider, having regard to its performance
in the conditions to be expected on the intended flight and to any
obstructions
at the place of departure and on the intended route, is capable
of safely taking off, reaching and maintaining a safe height at
which to
separate the combination and that thereafter the towing aircraft can make a
safe landing at the place of intended
destination;
(b) that signals have been agreed and communication established with persons
suitably stationed so as to enable the glider
to take off safely; and
(c) that emergency signals have been agreed between the commander of the
towing aircraft and the commander of the glider, to
be used, respectively, by
the commander of the towing aircraft to indicate that the tow should
immediately be released by the
glider, and by the commander of the glider to
indicate that the tow cannot be released.
(4) The glider shall be
attached to the towing aircraft by means of the tow rope before the aircraft
takes off.
Towing, picking up and raising of persons and articles
55. - (1) Subject to the provisions of this
article, an aircraft in flight shall not, by means external to the aircraft,
tow any article, other than a glider, or pick up or raise any person, animal
or article, unless the certificate of airworthiness
issued or rendered valid
in respect of that aircraft under the law of the country in which the
aircraft is registered includes
an express provision that it may be used for
that purpose.
(2) An aircraft shall not launch or pick up tow
ropes, banners or similar articles other than at an
aerodrome.
(3) An aircraft in flight shall not tow any article,
other than a glider, at night or when flight visibility
is less than one
nautical mile.
(4) The length of the combination of towing aircraft,
tow rope, and article in tow, shall not exceed
150 metres.
(5) A helicopter shall not fly at any height over a
congested area of a city, town or settlement at
any time when any article,
person or animal is suspended from the helicopter.
(6) A passenger shall not be carried in a helicopter
at any time when an article, person or animal
is suspended therefrom, other
than a passenger who has duties to perform in connection with the article,
person or animal or
a passenger who has been picked up or raised by means
external to the helicopter or a passenger who it is intended shall be lowered
to the surface by such means.
(7) Nothing in this article shall:
(a) prohibit the towing in a
reasonable manner by an aircraft in flight of any radio aerial, any
instrument which is being used
for experimental purposes, or any signal,
apparatus or article required or permitted by or under this Order to be towed
or
displayed by an aircraft in flight;
(b) prohibit the picking up or raising of any person, animal or article in an
emergency or for the purpose of saving life;
(c) apply to any aircraft while it is flying in accordance with the "B
Conditions" set forth in Part A of Schedule
3 to this Order; or
(d) be taken to permit the towing or picking up of a glider otherwise than in
accordance with article 54 of this Order.
Dropping of articles and animals
56. - (1) Articles and animals (whether or
not attached to a parachute) shall not be dropped, or permitted to drop, from
an aircraft in flight so as to endanger persons or property.
(2) Subject to paragraph (3), except under and in
accordance with the terms of an aerial application
certificate granted under
article 58 of this Order, articles and animals (whether or not attached to a
parachute) shall not
be dropped, or permitted to drop, to the surface from an
aircraft flying over the Territory.
(3) Paragraph (2) shall not apply to the dropping of
articles by, or with the authority of, the commander
of the aircraft in any
of the following circumstances:
(a) the dropping of articles for
the purpose of saving life;
(b) the jettisoning, in case of emergency, of fuel or other articles in the
aircraft;
(c) the dropping of ballast in the form of fine sand or water;
(d) the dropping of articles solely for the purpose of navigating the
aircraft in accordance with ordinary practice or with
the provisions of this
Order;
(e) the dropping at an aerodrome of tow ropes, banners, or similar articles
towed by aircraft;
(f) the dropping of articles for the purposes of public health or as a
measure against weather conditions, surface icing or
oil pollution, or for
training for the dropping of articles for any such purposes, if the articles
are dropped with the permission
of the Governor and in accordance with any
conditions subject to which that permission may have been given; or
(g) the dropping of wind drift indicators for the purpose of enabling
parachute descents to be made if the wind drift indicators
are dropped with
the permission of the Governor and in accordance with any conditions subject
to which that permission may
have been given.
(4) For the purpose of this
article "dropping" includes projecting and lowering.
(5) Nothing in this article shall prohibit the
lowering of any article or animal from a helicopter
to the surface, if the
certificate of airworthiness issued or rendered valid in respect of the
helicopter under the law of
the country in which it is registered includes an
express provision that it may be used for that purpose.
Dropping of persons
57. - (1) A person shall not drop, be
dropped or permitted to drop to the surface or jump from an aircraft flying
over
the Territory except under and in accordance with the terms of either a
police air operator's certificate or a written permission
granted by the
Governor under this article.
(2) For the purposes of this article "dropping"
includes projecting and lowering.
(3) Notwithstanding the grant of a police air
operator's certificate or a permission under paragraph
(1), a person shall
not drop, be dropped or be permitted to drop from an aircraft in flight so as
to endanger persons or property.
(4) An aircraft shall not be used for the purpose of
dropping persons unless:
(a) the certificate of
airworthiness issued or rendered valid in respect of that aircraft under the
law of the country in which
the aircraft is registered includes an express
provision that it may be used for that purpose and the aircraft is operated
in accordance with a written permission granted by the Governor under this
article; or
(b) the aircraft is operated under and in accordance with the terms of a
police air operator's certificate.
(5)
(a) Every applicant for and holder
of a permission shall make available to the Governor if requested to do so a
parachuting
manual and shall make such amendments or additions to such manual
as the Governor may require.
(b)
(i) The holder of a permission
shall make the manual available to every employee or person who is or may
engage in parachuting
activities conducted by him.
(ii) The manual shall contain all such information and instruction as may be necessary
to enable such employees or persons
to perform their duties.
(6) Nothing in this article
shall apply to the descent of persons by parachute from an aircraft in an
emergency.
(7) Nothing in this article shall prohibit the
lowering of any person in an emergency or for the purpose
of saving life.
(8) Nothing in this article shall prohibit the
lowering of any person from a helicopter to the surface
if the certificate or
airworthiness issued or rendered valid in respect of the helicopter under the
law of the country in which
it is registered includes an express provision
that it may be used for that purpose.
Issue of aerial application certificates
58. - (1) An aircraft shall not be used for
the dropping of articles for the purposes of agriculture, horticulture or
forestry or for training for the dropping of articles for any of such
purposes, otherwise than under and in accordance with
the terms of an aerial
application certificate granted to the operator of the aircraft under paragraph
(2).
(2)
(a) The Governor shall grant an
aerial application certificate if he is satisfied that the applicant is a fit
person to hold
the certificate and is competent, having regard in particular
to his previous conduct and experience, his equipment, organisation,
staffing
and other arrangements, to secure the safe operation of the aircraft
specified in the certificate on flights for the
purposes specified in
paragraph (1).
(b) A certificate may be granted subject to such conditions as the Governor
thinks fit including, without prejudice to the
generality of the foregoing,
conditions for ensuring that the aircraft and any article dropped from it do
not endanger persons
or property in the aircraft or elsewhere, and shall,
subject to article 81 of this Order, remain in force for the period specified
in the certificate.
(3) Every applicant for and
holder of an aerial application certificate shall make available to the
Governor upon application and to every member of his operating staff upon the
certificate being granted, an aerial application
manual which shall contain
all such information and instructions as may be necessary to enable the
operating staff to perform
their duties as such. The holder of a certificate
shall make such amendments of or additions to the manual as the Governor may
require.
(4) For the purposes of this article "operating
staff" has the meaning ascribed to it in
article 31(4) of this Order.
Carriage of weapons and of munitions of war
59. - (1) Subject to paragraph (4) an
aircraft shall not carry any munition of war unless:
(a) such munition of war is
carried with the written permission of the Governor and in accordance with
any conditions relating
thereto;
(b) subject to sub-paragraph (c), the commander of the aircraft is informed
in writing by the operator before the flight commences
of the type, weight or
quantity and location of any such munition of war on board or suspended
beneath the aircraft and any
conditions of the permission of the Governor;
and
(c) in the case of an aircraft which if flying under and in accordance with
the terms of a police air operator's certificate
the commander of the
aircraft is informed of the matters referred to in sub-paragraph (b) but he
need not be so informed in
writing.
(2)
(a) Notwithstanding paragraph (1)
it shall, subject to sub-paragraph (b), be unlawful for an aircraft to carry
any sporting
weapon or munition of war in any compartment or apparatus to
which passengers have access;
(b) sub-paragraph (a) shall not apply to an aircraft which is flying under
and in accordance with the terms of a police air
operator's certificate.
(3)
(a) Subject to sub-paragraph (b),
it shall be unlawful for a person to carry or have in his possession or take
or cause to be
taken on board an aircraft, to suspend or cause to be
suspended beneath an aircraft or to deliver or cause to be delivered for
carriage thereon any sporting weapon or munition of war unless:
(i) the sporting weapon or
munition of war:
(aa) is either part of the baggage
of a passenger on the aircraft or consigned as cargo to be carried thereby;
(bb) is carried in a part of the aircraft, or in any apparatus attached to
the aircraft inaccessible to passengers; and
(cc) in the case of a firearm, is unloaded.
(ii) particulars of the sporting
weapon or munition of war have been furnished by that passenger or by the
consignor to the
operator before the flight commences; and
(iii) without prejudice to paragraph (1) the operator consents to the
carriage of such sporting weapon or munition of war by
the aircraft.
(b) Sub-paragraph (a) shall not
apply to or in relation to an aircraft which is flying under and in
accordance with the terms
of a police air operator's certificate.
(4) Nothing in this article
shall apply to any sporting weapon or munition of war taken or carried on
board an aircraft registered in a country other than the Territory if the
sporting weapon or munition of war, as the case may
be, may under the law of
the country in which the aircraft is registered be lawfully taken or carried
on board for the purpose
of ensuring the safety of the aircraft or of persons
on board.
(5) For the purposes of this article:
(a) "munition of war"
means:
(i) any weapon or ammunition;
(ii) any article containing an explosive, noxious liquid or gas; or
(iii) any other thing;
which is designed or made for use
in warfare or against persons, including parts, whether components or
accessories, for such
weapon, ammunition or article.
(b) "sporting weapon" means:
(i) any weapon or ammunition;
(ii) any article containing an explosive, noxious liquid or gas; or
(iii) any other thing, including parts, whether components or accessories,
for such weapon, ammunition or article;
which is not a munition of war.
Carriage of dangerous goods
60. - (1) It shall be an offence to
contravene or permit the contravention of or fail to comply with any of the
regulations
set out in Schedule 15 to this Order.
(2) The Governor may, with the approval of the
Secretary of State, make regulations which supplement,
amend or replace the
regulations set out in the said Schedule 15, and which prescribe:
(a) the classification of certain
articles and substances as dangerous goods;
(b) the categories of dangerous goods which an aircraft may not carry;
(c) the conditions which apply to the loading on, suspension beneath and
carriage by an aircraft of dangerous goods;
(d) the manner in which dangerous goods must be packed, marked, labelled and
consigned before being loaded on, suspended beneath
or carried by an
aircraft;
(e) any other provisions for securing the safety of aircraft and any
apparatus attached thereto and the safety of persons and
property on the
surface in relation to the loading on, suspension beneath or carriage by an
aircraft of dangerous goods;
(f) the persons to whom information about the carriage of dangerous goods
must be provided;
(g) the documents relating to the carriage by an aircraft of dangerous goods
which must be produced to the Governor or an authorised
person on request;
(h) the powers to be conferred on an authorised person relating to the
enforcement of the regulations made hereunder.
(3) The provisions of
paragraph (1) of this article shall be without prejudice to any other
provisions
of this Order; and the provisions of paragraph (1) of this
article, of Schedule 15 to this Order and of any regulations supplementing,
amending or replacing the regulations set out in the said Schedule 15 shall
be additional to and not in derogation from the
provisions of Article 59 of
this Order.
Method of carriage of persons
61. - (1)
(a) Subject to paragraphs (2) and
(3), a person shall not be in or on any part of an aircraft in flight which
is not a part
designed for the accommodation of persons and in particular a
person shall not be on the wings or undercarriage of an aircraft.
(b) A person shall not be in or on any object, other than a glider or flying
machine, towed by or attached to an aircraft in
flight.
(2) A person may have
temporary access to:
(a) any part of an aircraft for
the purpose of taking action necessary for the safety of the aircraft or of
any person, animal
or goods therein; and
(b) any part of an aircraft in which cargo or stores are carried, being a
part which is designed to enable a person to have
access thereto while the
aircraft is in flight.
(3) This article shall not
apply to a passenger in a helicopter flying under and in accordance with a
police air operator's certificate who is disembarking in accordance with a
procedure contained in the police operations manual
for the helicopter.
Exits and break-in markings
62. - (1) Subject to paragraph (5)(b), this
article shall apply to every public transport aircraft registered in the
Territory.
(2)
(a) Whenever an aircraft to which
this article applies is carrying passengers, every exit therefrom and every
internal door
in the aircraft shall be in working order, and, subject to
sub-paragraph (b), during take-off and landing and during any emergency,
every such exit and door shall be kept free from obstruction and shall not be
fastened by locking or otherwise so as to prevent,
hinder or delay its use by
passengers.
(b)
(i) An exit may be obstructed by
cargo if it is an exit which, in accordance with arrangements approved by the
Governor either
generally or in relation to a class of aircraft or a
particular aircraft, is not required for use by passengers.
(ii) A door between the flight crew compartment and any adjacent compartment
to which passengers have access may be locked
or bolted if the commander of
the aircraft so determines, for the purpose of preventing access by
passengers to the flight
crew compartment.
(iii) Nothing in this paragraph shall apply to any internal door which is so
placed that it cannot prevent, hinder or delay
the exit of passengers from
the aircraft in an emergency if it is not in working order.
(3) Every exit from the
aircraft shall be marked with the words "Exit" or "Emergency
Exit" in capital letters.
(4)
(a) Every exit from the aircraft
shall be marked with instructions in English and with diagrams to indicate
the correct method
of opening the exit.
(b) The markings shall be placed on or near the inside surface of the door or
other closure of the exit and, if it is openable
from the outside of the
aircraft, on or near the exterior surface.
(5)
(a)
(i) Every aircraft to which this
article applies, being an aircraft of which the maximum total weight
authorised exceeds 3,600
kg, shall be marked upon the exterior surface of its
fuselage with markings to show the areas (in this paragraph referred to as
"break-in areas") which can, for purposes of rescue in an
emergency, be most readily and effectively broken into
by persons outside the
aircraft.
(ii) The break-in areas shall be rectangular in shape and shall be marked by
right-angled corner markings, each arm of which
shall be 10 centimetres in
length along its outer edge and 2.5 centimetres in width.
(iii) The words "Cut Here in Emergency" shall be marked across the
centre of each break-in area in capital letters.
(b) This paragraph shall not apply
to helicopters.
(6) On every flight by an
aircraft to which this article applies, being an aircraft of which the
maximum
total weight authorised exceeds 5,700 kg, every exit from such an
aircraft intended to be used by passengers in an emergency shall
be marked
upon the exterior of the aircraft by a band not less than 5 centimetres in
width outlining the exit.
(7) The markings required by this article shall:
(a) be painted, or affixed by other
equally permanent means;
(b) except in the case of the markings required by paragraph (6), be red in
colour, and in any case in which the colour of
the adjacent background is
such as to render red markings not readily visible, be outlined in white or some
other contrasting
colour in such a manner as to render them readily visible;
(c) in the case of the markings required by paragraph (6), be of a colour
clearly contrasting with the background on which
it appears; and
(d) be kept at all times clean and unobscured.
(8)
(a) Subject to compliance with
sub-paragraph (b), if one, but not more than one, exit from an aircraft
becomes inoperative at
a place where it is not reasonably practicable for it
to be repaired or replaced, nothing in this article shall prevent that
aircraft from carrying passengers until it next lands at a place where the
exit can be repaired or replaced.
(b) On any flight pursuant to this paragraph:
(i) the number of passengers
carried and the position of the seats which they occupy shall be in
accordance with arrangements
approved by the Governor either in relation to
the particular aircraft or to a class of aircraft; and
(ii) in accordance with arrangements so approved, the exit shall be fastened
by locking or otherwise, the words "Exit"
or "Emergency
Exit" shall be covered, and the exit shall be marked by a red disc at
least 23 centimetres in diameter
with a horizontal white bar across it
bearing the words "No Exit" in red letters.
Endangering safety of an aircraft
63. A person shall not recklessly or negligently act in
a manner likely to endanger an aircraft, or any person therein.
Endangering safety of any person or property
64. A person shall not recklessly or negligently cause
or permit an aircraft to endanger any person or property.
Drunkenness in aircraft
65. - (1) A person shall not enter any
aircraft when drunk, or be drunk in any aircraft.
(2) A person shall not, when acting as a member of
the crew of any aircraft or being carried in any
aircraft for the purpose of
so acting, be under the influence of drink or a drug to such an extent as to
impair his capacity
so to act.
Smoking in aircraft
66. - (1) Notices indicating when smoking is
prohibited shall be exhibited in every aircraft registered in the Territory
so as to be visible from each passenger seat therein.
(2) A person shall not smoke in any compartment of an
aircraft registered in the Territory at a time
when smoking is prohibited in
that compartment by a notice to that effect exhibited by or on behalf of the
commander of the
aircraft.
Authority of commander and members of the crew of an aircraft
67. Every person in an aircraft shall obey all lawful
commands which the commander of that aircraft may give for the purpose of
securing the safety of the aircraft and of persons or property carried
therein, or the safety, efficiency or regularity of air
navigation.
Acting in a disruptive manner
68. No person shall while in an aircraft:
(a) use any threatening, abusive
or insulting words towards a member of the crew of the aircraft;
(b) behave in a threatening, abusive, insulting or disorderly manner towards
a member of the crew of the aircraft; or
(c) intentionally interfere with the performance by a member of the crew of
the aircraft or his duties.
Stowaways
69. A person shall not secrete himself for the purpose
of being carried in an aircraft without the consent of the either the
operator
or the commander thereof or of any other person entitled to give
consent to his being carried in the aircraft.
Flying Displays
70. - (1) No person shall act as the
organiser of a flying display (in this article referred to as "the
flying
display director") unless he has obtained the permission in
writing of the Governor under paragraph (4) for that flying display
and
complies with any conditions therein specified.
(2)
(a) The commander of an aircraft
intending to participate in a flying display shall take all reasonable steps
to satisfy himself
before he participates that:
(i) the flying display director
has been granted an appropriate permission under paragraph (4);
(ii) the flight can comply with any relevant conditions subject to which that
permission may have been granted; and
(iii) the pilot has been granted an appropriate pilot display authorisation.
(b) The commander of an aircraft
participating in a flying display for which a permission has been granted
shall comply with
any conditions subject to which that permission may have
been granted.
(c) No person shall act as pilot of an aircraft participating in a flying
display unless he holds an appropriate pilot display
authorisation and he
complies with any conditions subject to which the authorisation may have been
given.
(3) The flying display
director shall not permit any person to act as pilot of an aircraft which
participates
in a flying display unless such person holds an appropriate
pilot display authorisation.
(4)
(a) The Governor shall grant a
permission required by virtue of paragraph (1) if he is satisfied that the
applicant is a fit
and competent person, having regard in particular to his
previous conduct and experience, his organisation, staffing and other
arrangements, to safely organise the proposed flying display.
(b) The permission may be granted subject to such conditions, which may
include conditions in respect of military aircraft,
as the Governor thinks
fit and shall, subject to article 81 of this Order, remain in force for the
period specified in the
permission.
(5) The Governor shall, for the
purpose of this article, either unconditionally or subject to such conditions
as he thinks fit:
(a) grant a display authorisation
authorising the holder to act as pilot of an aircraft taking part in a flying
display upon
his being satisfied that the applicant is a fit person to hold
the authorisation and is qualified by reason of his knowledge,
experience,
competence, skill, physical and mental fitness to fly in accordance therewith
and for that purpose the applicant
shall furnish such evidence and undergo
such examinations and tests as the Governor may require; and
(b) authorise a person to conduct such examinations or tests as he may
specify.
(6) A pilot display
authorisation granted in accordance with this article shall, subject to
article
81 of this Order, remain in force for the period indicated in the
pilot display authorisation.
(7) For the purposes of this article, an appropriate
pilot display authorisation shall mean such an
authorisation which is valid
and appropriate to the intended flight and which has been granted by the
Governor pursuant to
paragraph (5)(a).
(8) Paragraph (1) shall not apply to either:
(a) a flying display which takes
place at an aerodrome in the occupation of the Ministry of Defence or of any
visiting force
or any other premises in the occupation or under the control
of the Ministry of Defence; or
(b) a flying display at which the only participating aircraft are military
aircraft.
(9) The flying display
director shall not permit any military aircraft to participate in a flying
display
unless he complies with any conditions specified in respect of
military aircraft subject to which permission for the flying display
may have
been granted.
(10) Nothing in this article shall apply to an
aircraft race or contest or to an aircraft taking part
in such a race or
contest or to the commander or pilot thereof whether or not such race or
contest is held in association with
a flying display.
PART VI
Fatigue of Crew
Application and interpretation of Part VI
71. - (1)
(a) Subject to sub-paragraph (b),
articles 72 and 73 of this Order apply in relation to any aircraft registered
in the Territory
which is either:
(i) engaged on a flight for the
purpose of public transport; or
(ii) operated by an air transport undertaking.
(b) Articles 72 and 73 of this
Order shall not apply in relation to a flight made only for the purpose of
instruction in flying
given by or on behalf of a flying club or flying
school, or a person who is not an air transport undertaking.
(2) For the purposes of this
Order:
(a) "flight time", in
relation to any person, means all time spent by that person in:
(i) a civil aircraft whether or
not registered in the Territory (other than such an aircraft of which the
maximum total weight
authorised does not exceed 1,600 kg and which is not
flying for the purpose of public transport or aerial work); or
(ii) a military aircraft,
while it is in flight and he is
carried therein as a member of the crew thereof;
(b) "day" means a continuous period of 24 hours beginning at
midnight Co-ordinated Universal Time; and
(c) a helicopter shall be deemed to be in flight from the moment the
helicopter first moves under its own power for the purpose
of taking off
until the rotors are next stopped.
Fatigue of crew - operator's
responsibilities
72. - (1) The operator of an aircraft to
which this article applies shall not cause or permit that aircraft to make a
flight unless:
(a) he has established a scheme
for the regulation of flight times for every person flying in that aircraft
as a member of its
crew;
(b) the scheme is approved by the Governor subject to such conditions as he
thinks fit;
(c) either:
(i) the scheme is incorporated in
the operations manual required by article 31 of this Order; or
(ii) in any case where an operations manual is not required by that article,
the scheme is incorporated in a document, a copy
of which has been made
available to every person flying in that aircraft as a member of its crew;
and
(d) he has taken all such steps as
are reasonably practicable to ensure that the provisions of the scheme will
be complied with
in relation to every person flying in that aircraft as a
member of its crew.
(2) The operator of an
aircraft to which this article applies shall not cause or permit any person
to
fly therein as a member of its crew if he knows or has reason to believe
that the person is suffering from, or, having regard
to the circumstances of
the flight to be undertaken, is likely to suffer from, such fatigue while he
is so flying as may endanger
the safety of the aircraft or of its occupants.
(3) The operator of an aircraft to which this article
applies shall not cause or permit any person
to fly therein as a member of
its flight crew unless the operator has in his possession an accurate and
up-to-date record in
respect of that person and in respect of the 28 days
immediately preceding the flight showing:
(a) all his flight times; and
(b) brief particulars of the nature of the functions performed by him in the
course of his flight times.
(4) The record referred to
in paragraph (3) shall, subject to article 80, be preserved by the operator
of the aircraft until a date 12 months after the flight referred to in that
paragraph.
Fatigue of crew-responsibilities of crew
73. - (1) A person shall not act as a member
of the crew of an aircraft to which this article applies if he knows or
suspects that he is suffering from, or, having regard to the circumstances of
the flight to be undertaken, is likely to suffer
from, such fatigue as may
endanger the safety of the aircraft or of its occupants.
(2) A person shall not act as a member of the flight
crew of an aircraft to which this article applies
unless he has ensured that
the operator of the aircraft is aware of his flight times during the period
of 28 days preceding
the flight.
Flight times - responsibilities of flight crew
74. - (1) Subject to paragraph (2), a person
shall not act as a member of the flight crew of an aircraft registered in
the
Territory if at the beginning of the flight the aggregate of all his previous
flight times:
(a) during the period of 28
consecutive days expiring at the end of the day on which the flight begins
exceeds 100 hours; or
(b) during the period of twelve months expiring at the end of the previous
month exceeds 900 hours.
(2)
(a) This article shall not apply
to a flight made in circumstances specified in sub-paragraph (b).
(b)
(i) A private flight in an
aircraft of which the maximum total weight does not exceed 1,600 kg; or
(ii) a flight which is not for the purpose of public transport and is not
operated by an air transport undertaking where, at
the time when the flight
begins, the aggregate of all the flight times of the member of the flight
crew concerned since he
was last medically examined and found fit by a person
approved by the Governor for the purpose of article 25(1)(b) does not exceed
25 hours.
Protection of air crew from cosmic radiation
75. - (1) A relevant undertaking shall take
appropriate measures to:
(a) assess the exposure to cosmic
radiation when in flight of those air crew who are liable to be subject to
cosmic radiation
in excess of 1 milliSievert per year;
(b) take into account the assessed exposure when organising work schedules
with a view to reducing the doses of highly exposed
air crew; and
(c) inform the workers concerned of the health risks their work involves.
(2) A relevant undertaking
shall ensure that in relation to a pregnant air crew member, the conditions
of exposure to cosmic radiation when she is in flight are such that the
equivalent dose to the foetus will be as low as reasonably
achievable and is
unlikely to exceed 1 milliSievert during the remainder of the pregnancy.
(3) Nothing in paragraph (2) shall require the
undertaking concerned to take any action in relation
to an air crew member
until she has notified the undertaking in writing that she is pregnant.
(4) The definition in article 130 of "crew"
shall not apply for the purposes of this article.
(5) In this article and in article 77:
(a) "air crew" means
every person employed or engaged in an aircraft in flight on the business of
the aircraft;
(b) "undertaking" includes a natural or legal person and, subject
to paragraph (6), "relevant undertaking"
means an undertaking which
operates aircraft and is established in the Territory; and
(c) "year" means any period of twelve months.
PART VII
Documents and Records
Documents to be carried
76. - (1) An aircraft shall not fly unless
it carries the documents which it is required to carry under the law of the
country in which it is registered.
(2)
(a) Subject to sub-paragraph (b),
an aircraft registered in the Territory shall, when in flight, carry
documents in accordance
with Schedule 11 to this Order.
(b) If the flight is intended to begin and end at the same aerodrome and does
not include passage over the territory of any
country other than the
Territory, the documents may be kept at that aerodrome instead of being
carried in the aircraft.
Keeping and production of records of exposure to
cosmic radiation
77. - (1) A relevant undertaking shall keep
a record for the period and in the manner prescribed in Schedule 17 to this
Order of the exposure to cosmic radiation of air crew assessed under article
75 and the names of the air crew concerned.
(2) A relevant undertaking shall, within a reasonable
period after being requested to do so by an authorised
person, cause to be
produced to that person the record required to be kept under paragraph (1).
(3) A relevant undertaking shall, within a reasonable
period after being requested to do so by a person
in respect of whom a record
is required to be kept under paragraph (1), supply a copy of that record to
that person.
Production of documents and records
78. - (1) The commander of an aircraft
shall, within a reasonable time after being requested to do so by an
authorised
person, cause to be produced to that person:
(a) the certificates of
registration and airworthiness in force in respect of the aircraft;
(b) the licences of its flight crew; and
(c) such other documents as the aircraft is required by article 76 of this
Order to carry when in flight.
(2) The operator of an
aircraft registered in the Territory shall, within a reasonable time after
being
requested to do so by an authorised person, cause to be produced to
that person such of the following documents or records as
may have been
requested by that person being documents or records which are required, by or
under this Order, to be in force
or to be carried, preserved or made
available:
(a) the documents referred to in
Schedule 11 to this Order as Documents A, B and G;
(b) the aircraft log book, engine log books and variable pitch propeller log
books required under this Order to be kept;
(c) the weight schedule, if any, required to be preserved under article 18 of
this Order;
(d) in the case of a public transport aircraft or aerial work aircraft, the
documents referred to in Schedule 11 to this Order
as Documents D and H;
(e) in the case of an aircraft in respect of which a certificate of
airworthiness in either the transport or aerial work category
is in force,
the documents referred to in Schedule 11 to this Order as Documents E and F;
(f) any records of flight times, duty periods and rest periods which he is
required by article 72(4) of this Order to preserve,
and such other documents
and information in the possession or control of the operator, as the
authorised person may require
for the purpose of determining whether those records
are complete and accurate;
(g) any such operations manuals as are required to be made available under
article 31(2)(a)(i) of this Order;
(h) the record made by any flight data recorder required to be carried by or
under this Order.
(3)
(a) The holder of a licence
granted or rendered valid under this Order shall, within a reasonable time
after being requested
to do so by an authorised person, cause to be produced
to that person his licence, including any certificate of validation. The
requirements of this paragraph shall be deemed to have been complied with,
except in relation to licences required by article
76 to be carried in the
aircraft or kept at an aerodrome, if the licence requested is produced within
five days after the request
has been made at a police station in the
Territory specified, at the time the request is made, by the person to whom
the request
is made.
(b) The foregoing provisions of this paragraph shall apply to a medical
certificate required pursuant to article 21(2)(b)(ii)
of this Order as they
apply to a licence granted or rendered valid under this Order.
(4) Every person required by
article 28 of this Order to keep a personal flying log book shall cause it
to
be produced within a reasonable time to an authorised person after being
requested to do so by him within two years after
the date of the last entry
therein.
Power to inspect and copy documents and records
79. An authorised person shall have the power to
inspect and copy any certificate, licence, log book, document or record which
he has the power pursuant to this Order and any regulations made thereunder
to require to be produced to him.
Preservation of documents, etc.
80. - (1) Subject to paragraph (2), a person
required by this Order to preserve any document or record by reason of his
being the operator of an aircraft shall, if he ceases to be the operator of
the aircraft, continue to preserve the document
or record as if he had not
ceased to be the operator, and in the event of his death the duty to preserve
the document or record
shall fall upon his personal representative.
(2)
(a) If another person becomes the
operator of the aircraft, the first-mentioned operator or his personal
representative shall
deliver to that person upon demand the certificates of
maintenance review and release to service, the log books and the weight
schedule and any record made by a flight data recorder and preserved in
accordance with article 53(2) and (4) of this Order
which are in force or
required to be preserved in respect of that aircraft.
(b) If an engine or variable pitch propeller is removed from the aircraft and
installed in another aircraft operated by another
person the first-mentioned
operator or his personal representative shall deliver to that person upon demand
the log book relating
to that engine or propeller.
(c) If any person in respect of whom a record has been kept by the first
mentioned operator in accordance with article 72(4)
of this Order becomes a
member of the flight crew of a public transport aircraft registered in the
Territory and operated by
another person the first-mentioned operator or his
personal representative shall deliver those records to that other person upon
demand.
(d) It shall be the duty of the other person referred to in sub-paragraphs
(a), (b) and (c) to deal with the document or record
delivered to him as if
he were the first-mentioned operator.
Revocation, suspension and variation of
certificates, licences and other documents
81. - (1)
(a) Subject to paragraphs (4) and
(5), the Governor may, if he thinks fit, provisionally suspend or vary any
certificate, licence,
approval, permission, exemption, authorisation or other
document issued, granted or having effect under this Order, pending inquiry
into or consideration of the case.
(b) The Governor may, on sufficient ground being shown to his satisfaction
after due inquiry, revoke, suspend or vary any such
certificate, licence,
approval, permission, exemption, authorisation or other document.
(2) The holder or any person
having the possession or custody of any certificate, licence, approval,
permission, exemption or other document which has been revoked, suspended or
varied under this Order shall surrender it to the
Governor within a
reasonable time after being required to do so by the Governor.
(3) The breach of any condition subject to which any
certificate, licence, approval, permission, exemption
or other document,
other than a licence issued in respect of an aerodrome, has been granted or
issued or which has effect under
this Order, shall, in the absence of
provision to the contrary in the document, render the document invalid during
the continuance
of the breach.
(4) The provisions of article 82 of this Order shall
have effect, in place of the provisions of this
article, in relation to
permissions granted by the Secretary of State or the Governor, as the case
may be, under article 113
of this Order and any approvals or authorisations
of, or consents to, any matter which the Secretary of State or the Governor
has granted, or is deemed to have granted, in pursuance of a permission which
he has so granted.
(5) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), a flight manual,
performance schedule or other document incorporated
by reference in the
certificate of airworthiness may be varied on sufficient ground being shown
to the satisfaction of the
Governor, whether or not after due inquiry.
Revocation, suspension and variation of permissions, etc granted under
article 113 orarticle 115
82. - (1) Subject to the provisions of this
article, the Secretary of State may revoke, suspend or vary any permit to
which this article applies.
(2) Save as provided by paragraph (3), the Secretary
of State, may exercise his powers under paragraph
(1) only after notifying
the permit-holder of his intention to do so and after due consideration of
the case.
(3) If, by reason of the urgency of the matter, it
appears to the Secretary of State to be necessary
for him to do so, he may
provisionally suspend or vary a permit to which this article applies without
complying with the requirements
of paragraph (2); but he shall in any such
case comply with those requirements as soon thereafter as is reasonably
practicable
and shall then, in the light of his due consideration of the
case, either:
(a) revoke the provisional
suspension or variation of the permit; or
(b) substitute therefor a definitive revocation, suspension or variation,
which, if a definitive suspension, may be for the
same or a different period
as the provisional suspension (if any) or, if a definitive variation, may be
in the same or different
terms as the provisional variation (if any).
(4) The powers vested in the
Secretary of State by paragraph (1) or paragraph (3) may be exercised by him
whenever, in his judgement and whether or not by reason of anything done or
omitted to be done by the permit-holder or otherwise
connected with the
permit-holder, it is necessary or expedient that the permit-holder should not
enjoy, or should no longer
enjoy, the rights conferred on him by a permit to
which this article applies or should enjoy them subject to such limitations
or qualifications as the Secretary of State may determine. In particular, and
without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing,
the Secretary of State
may exercise his said powers if:
(a) it appears to him that the
person to whom the permit was granted has committed a breach of any condition
to which it is
subject;
(b) it appears to him that any agreement between Her Majesty's Government in
the United Kingdom and the Government of any other
country in pursuance of
which or in reliance on which the permit was granted is no longer in force or
that that other Government
has committed a breach thereof;
(c) it appears to him that the person to whom the permit was granted, or such
other Government as aforesaid (that is to say,
a Government which is a party
to such an agreement as aforesaid with Her Majesty's Government in the United
Kingdom), or the
aeronautical authorities of the country concerned, have
acted in a manner which is inconsistent with or prejudicial to the operation
in good faith, and according to its object and purpose, of any such agreement
as aforesaid, or have engaged in unfair discriminatory
or restrictive
practices to the prejudice of the holder of an Air Transport Licence granted
under section 65 of the Civil Aviation
Act 1982[6] as it
applies in the United Kingdom or the holder of a route licence granted under
that section as applied by section 69A
of that Act in his operation of air
services to or from points in the country concerned or of the operator of an
aircraft registered
in and licensed to operate from any of the Territories by
regulations under section 13 of the Act in his operation of air services
to
or from points in the country concerned; and
(d) it appears to him that the person to whom the permit was granted, having
been granted it as a person designated by the
Government of a country other
than the United Kingdom for the purposes of any such agreement as aforesaid,
is no longer so
designated or that that person has so conducted himself, or
that such circumstances have arisen in relation to him, as to make
it
necessary or expedient to disregard or qualify the consequences of his being
so designated.
(5)
The permit-holder or any person having the possession or custody of any
permit which has been revoked,
suspended or varied under this article shall
surrender it to the Secretary of State within a reasonable time of being
required
by him to do so.
(6) The breach of any condition subject to which any
permit to which this article applies has been
granted shall render the permit
invalid during the continuance of the breach.
(7) The permits to which this article applies are
permissions granted by the Secretary of State or
the Governor as the case may
be under Article 113 or Article 115 of this Order and any approvals or
authorisations of, or consents
to, any matter which the Secretary of State or
the Governor has granted, or is deemed to have granted, in pursuance of a
permission
which he has so granted.
(8) References in this Article to the permit-holder
are references to the person to whom any permit
to which this article applies
has been granted or is deemed to have been granted.
(9) The Secretary of State may, in any particular
case, or class of cases, delegate to the Governor
the exercise of the powers
conferred on the Secretary of State under this article in respect of
permissions granted by the
Secretary of State or the Governor as the case may
be under Article 113 of this Order and any approvals or authorisations of,
or
consents to, any matter which the Secretary of State or the Governor has
granted, or is deemed to have granted, in pursuance
of a permission which he
has so granted.
(10) The provisions of this Article shall have
effect, as from the commencement of this Order, as well
in relation to
permits, being permits to which this Article applies, granted before the
commencement of this Order as in relation
to those granted thereafter.
Offences in relation to documents and records
83. - (1) A person
shall not with intent to deceive:
(a) use any certificate, licence,
approval, permission, exemption or other document issued or required by or
under this Order
which has been forged, altered, revoked or suspended, or to
which he is not entitled;
(b) lend any certificate, licence, approval, permission, exemption or any
other document issued or having effect or required
by or under this Order to,
or allow it to be used by, any other person; or
(c) make any false representation for the purpose of procuring for himself or
any other person the grant, issue, renewal or
variation of any such
certificate, licence, approval, permission, exemption or other document;
and in this paragraph a reference to a certificate,
licence, approval, permission, exemption or other document includes a copy
or
purported copy thereof.
(2) A person shall not intentionally damage, alter or
render illegible any log book or other record
required by or under this Order
to be maintained or any entry made therein, or knowingly make, or procure or
assist in the
making of, any false entry in or material omission from any
such log book or record or destroy any such log book or record during
the
period for which it is required under this Order to be preserved.
(3) All entries made in writing in any log book or
record referred to in paragraph (2) shall be made
in ink or indelible pencil.
(4) A person shall not knowingly make in a load sheet
any entry which is incorrect in any material
particular, or any material
omission from such a load sheet.
(5) A person shall not purport to issue any
certificate for the purpose of this Order, of any regulations
made thereunder
unless he is authorised to do so under this Order.
(6) A person shall not issue any certificate as
aforesaid unless he has satisfied himself that all
statements in the
certificate are correct.
PART VIII
Movement of Aircraft
Rules of the Air
84. - (1) The Governor may make Rules of the
Air supplementary to but not inconsistent with the Rules of the Air in
Schedule 13 to this Order.
(2) Subject to the provisions of paragraph (3), it
shall be an offence to contravene, to permit the
contravention of, or to fail
to comply with, the Rules of the Air.
(3) It shall be lawful for the Rules of the Air to be
departed from to the extent necessary:
(a) for avoiding immediate danger;
(b) for complying with the law of any country other than the Territory within
which the aircraft then is; or
(c) for complying with Military Flying Regulations (Joint Service Publication
318) or Flying Orders to Contractors (Aviation
Publication 67) issued by the
Secretary of State in relation to an aircraft of which the commander is
acting as such in the
course of his duty as a member of any of Her Majesty's
naval, military or air forces.
(4) If any departure from
the Rules of the Air is made for the purpose of avoiding immediate danger,
the commander of the aircraft shall cause written particulars of the
departure, and of the circumstances giving rise to it, to
be given within 10
days thereafter to the competent authority of the country in whose territory
the departure was made or if
the departure was made over the high seas, to
the Governor.
(5) Nothing in the Rules of the Air shall exonerate
any person from the consequences of any neglect
in the use of lights or
signals or of the neglect of any precautions required by ordinary aviation
practice or by the special
circumstances of the case.
Power to prohibit or restrict flying
85. - (1)
(a) Where the Governor deems it
necessary in the public interest to restrict or prohibit flying by reason of:
(i) the intended gathering or
movement of a large number of persons;
(ii) the intended holding of an aircraft race or contest or of a flying
display; or
(iii) national defence or any other reason affecting the public interest;
the Governor may make regulations
prohibiting, restricting or imposing conditions on flight:
(aa) by any aircraft, whether or
not registered in the Territory, in any airspace over the Territory; and
(bb) by aircraft registered in the Territory, in any other airspace, being
airspace in respect of which the Government of the
Territory has in pursuance
of international arrangements undertaken to provide navigation services for
aircraft.
(b) Regulations made under this
article may apply either generally or in relation to any class of aircraft.
(2) It shall be an offence
to contravene or permit the contravention of or fail to comply with any
regulations
made hereunder.
(3) If the commander of an aircraft becomes aware
that the aircraft is flying in contravention of any
regulations which have
been made for any of the reasons referred to in paragraph (1)(a)(iii) he
shall, unless otherwise instructed
pursuant to paragraph (4), cause the
aircraft to leave the area to which the regulations relate by flying to the
least possible
extent over such area and the aircraft shall not begin to
descend while over such an area.
(4) The commander of an aircraft flying either within
an area for which regulations have been made
for any of the reasons referred
to in paragraph (1)(a)(iii) or within airspace notified as a Danger Area
shall forthwith comply
with instructions given by radio by the appropriate
air traffic control unit or by, or on behalf of, the person responsible for
safety within the relevant airspace.
Balloons, kites, airships, gliders and parascending parachutes
86. - (1) The provisions of this article
shall apply only to or in relation to aircraft within the Territory.
(2)
(a) A balloon in captive or
tethered flight shall not be flown within 60 metres of any vessel, vehicle or
structure except with
the permission of the person in charge of any such
vessel, vehicle or structure.
(b)
(i) a glider or parascending
parachute shall not be launched by winch and cable or by ground tow to a
height or more than 60
metres above ground level;
(ii) a balloon in captive flight shall not be flown within the aerodrome
traffic zone of a notified aerodrome during the notified
operating hours of
that aerodrome;
(iii) a balloon in captive or tethered flight shall not be flown at a height
measured to the top of the balloon of more than
60 metres above ground level;
(iv) a kite shall not be flown at a height of more than 30 metres above
ground level within the aerodrome traffic zone of a
notified aerodrome during
the notified operating hours of that aerodrome;
(v) a kite shall not be flown at a height of more than 60 metres above ground
level; and
(vi) a parascending parachute shall not be launched by winch and cable or by
ground tow within the aerodrome traffic zone of
a notified aerodrome during
the notified operating hours of that aerodrome;
without the permission in writing
of the Governor and in accordance with any conditions subject to which that
permission may
have been granted.
(3) An uncontrollable
balloon in captive or released flight shall not be flown in airspace notified
for the purposes of this paragraph without the permission in writing of the
Governor and in accordance with any conditions subject
to which that
permission may have been granted.
(4) A controllable balloon shall not be flown in free
controlled flight:
(a) within airspace notified for
the purposes of this paragraph; or
(b) within the aerodrome traffic zone of a notified aerodrome during the
notified operating hours of that aerodrome;
except during the day and in visual meteorological
conditions.
(5) A controllable balloon shall not be flown in
tethered flight:
(a) within airspace notified for
the purposes of this paragraph; or
(b) within the aerodrome traffic zone of a notified aerodrome;
except with the permission of the appropriate air
traffic control unit and in accordance with any conditions subject to which
that permission may have been granted.
(6) A balloon when in captive flight shall be
securely moored and shall not be left unattended unless
it is fitted with a
device which ensures its automatic deflation if it breaks free of its
moorings.
(7) An airship with a capacity exceeding 3,000 cubic
metres shall not be moored other than at a notified
aerodrome except with the
permission in writing of the Governor and in accordance with any conditions
subject to which that
permission may have been granted.
(8) An airship with a capacity not exceeding 3,000
cubic metres, unless it is moored on a notified
aerodrome, shall not be
moored:
(a) within 2 km of a congested
area; or
(b) within the aerodrome traffic zone of a notified aerodrome except with the
permission in writing of the Governor and in
accordance with any conditions
subject to which that permission may have been granted.
(9) An airship when moored
in the open shall be securely moored and shall not be left unattended.
(10)
(a) A person shall not cause or
permit a group of small balloons exceeding 1,000 in number to be
simultaneously released at
a single site wholly or partly within the
aerodrome traffic zone of a notified aerodrome during the notified operating
hours
of that aerodrome unless that person has given to the Governor not less
than 28 days previous notice in writing of the release.
(b) A person shall not cause or permit a group of small balloons exceeding
2,000 but not exceeding, 10,000 in number to be
simultaneously released at a
single site:
(i) within airspace notified for
the purposes of this sub-paragraph without the permission in writing of the
Governor; or
(ii) within the aerodrome traffic zone of a notified aerodrome during the
notified operating hours of that aerodrome without
the permission in writing
of the Governor;
in either case other than in
accordance with any conditions subject to which such a permission may have
been granted.
(c) A person shall not cause or permit a group of small balloons greater than
10,000 in number to be simultaneously released
at a single site except with
the permission in writing of the Governor and in accordance with any
conditions subject to which
such a permission may have been granted.
(d) For the purposes of sub-paragraphs (a), (b) and (c) "simultaneously
released at a single site" shall mean the
release of a specified number
of balloons during a period not exceeding 15 minutes from within an area not
exceeding 1 km square.
(11) For the purposes of
this article "a notified aerodrome" is an aerodrome notified for
the purposes of rule 39 of the Rules of the Air and the "notified
operating hours" means the times notified in respect
of an aerodrome
during which that rule applies.
Regulation of small aircraft
87. - (1) A person shall not cause or permit
any article or animal (whether or not attached to a parachute) to be dropped
from a small aircraft so as to endanger persons or property.
(2) The person in charge of a small aircraft which
weighs more than 7 kg without its fuel but including
any articles of
equipment installed in or attached to the aircraft at the commencement of its
flight shall not fly such an
aircraft:
(a) unless the person in charge of
the aircraft has reasonably satisfied himself that the flight can safely be
made;
(b) in Class A, C, D or E airspace unless the permission of the appropriate
air traffic control unit has been obtained;
(c) within an aerodrome traffic zone during the notified hours of watch of
the air traffic control unit (if any) at that aerodrome
unless the permission
of any such air traffic control unit has been obtained;
(d) at a height exceeding 400 ft above the surface unless it is flying in
airspace described in sub-paragraphs (b) or (c) and
in accordance with the
requirements thereof; or
(e) for aerial work purposes other than in accordance with a permission
issued by the Governor which may be issued subject
to such conditions as the
Governor thinks fit.
PART IX
Air Traffic Services
Requirement for approval for the provision of air traffic services
88. No person in charge of the provision of an air
traffic control service shall provide such a service otherwise than under and
in accordance with the terms of an approval granted to him by the Governor,
and the Governor shall grant an approval if he is
satisfied that the
applicant is competent, having regard to his organisation, staffing,
equipment, maintenance and other arrangements,
to provide a service which is
safe for use by aircraft.
Manual of Air Traffic Services
89. A person shall not provide an air traffic control
service at any place unless:
(a) the service is provided in
accordance with the standards and procedures specified in a manual of air
traffic services in
respect of that place;
(b) the manual is produced to the Governor within a reasonable time after a
request for its production is made by the Governor;
and
(c) such amendments or additions have been made to the manual as the Governor
may from time to time require.
Provision of air traffic services
90. - (1) In the case of an aerodrome (other
than a Government aerodrome) in respect of which there is equipment for
providing holding aid, let-down aid or approach aid by radio or radar, the
person in charge of the aerodrome shall:
(a) inform the Governor in advance
of the periods during and times at which any such equipment is to be in
operation for the
purpose of providing such aid as is specified by the said
person; and
(b) during any period and at such times as are notified, cause an approach
control service to be provided.
(2) The Governor may direct
that there shall be provided in respect of any aerodrome (other than a
Government
aerodrome) such air traffic control service, aerodrome flight
information service or means of two-way radio communication as the
Governor
considers appropriate in respect thereof. The Governor may specify in the
direction the periods during and the times
at which such a service or such
means shall be provided and the person in charge of the aerodrome shall cause
such a service
or such means to be provided in accordance with any such
direction.
(3) Obligations to cause an air traffic control
service to be provided arising under paragraph (1)
or (2) are without
prejudice to each other.
Use of radio call signs at aerodromes
91. The person in charge of an aerodrome provided with
means of two-way radio communication shall not cause or permit any call sign
to be used for a purpose other than a purpose for which that call sign has
been notified.
Licensing of air traffic controllers and student air traffic controllers
92. - (1)
(a) Subject to sub-paragraph (b),
the Governor shall grant a licence subject to such conditions as he thinks
fit to any person
to act as an air traffic controller or as a student air
traffic controller upon his being satisfied that the applicant is a fit
person to hold the licence and is qualified by reason of his knowledge,
experience, competence, skill and physical and mental
fitness so to act, and
for that purpose the applicant shall furnish such evidence and undergo such
examinations and tests (including
in particular medical examinations) and
undertake such courses of training, as the Governor may require of him.
(b) The Governor shall not grant:
(i) a student air traffic
controller's licence to any person under the age of 18 years; or
(ii) an air traffic controller's licence to any person under the age of 20
years.
(2)
(a) Subject to article 81 of this
Order, a licence to act as an air traffic controller or a student air traffic
controller shall
remain in force for the period indicated in the licence and
may be renewed by the Governor from time to time, upon his being satisfied
that the applicant is a fit person and is qualified as aforesaid.
(b) If no period is indicated in the licence, it shall remain in force,
subject as aforesaid, for the lifetime of the holder.
(3) The Governor may include
in an air traffic controller's licence, subject to such conditions as he
thinks fit and upon his being satisfied that the applicant is qualified as
aforesaid to act in the capacity to which the rating
relates, a rating of any
of the classes set forth in Schedule 9 to this Order specifying the type of
air traffic control service
which the holder of the licence is competent to
provide and such a rating shall be deemed to form part of the licence.
(4)
(a) The holder of an air traffic
controller's licence shall not be entitled to exercise the privileges of a
rating contained
in the licence at any place for any sector or with any type
of radar equipment unless the licence includes a valid certificate
of
competence in respect of that rating which is appropriate to that place or
sector and that equipment (if any) which certificate
complies with
sub-paragraph (b).
(b) A valid certificate of competence shall not be appropriate to the
exercise of the privileges of a rating at any place or
for any sector or with
any type of radar equipment unless the certificate:
(i) specifies that place or sector
and that type of radar equipment (if any) with the aid of which the services
is to be provided;
(ii) certifies that the person signing the certificate is satisfied that on a
date specified in the certificate the holder
of the licence, of which the
certificate forms part, has passed an appropriate test of his ability to
exercise the privileges
of the rating at the place or for the sector and with
the type or radar equipment, if any, specified in the certificate; and
(iii) specifies the date on which it was signed.
(c)
(i) A valid certificate of
competence shall be signed by a person authorised by the Governor to sign
certificates of that kind.
(ii) A certificate of competence shall be valid, subject to paragraph (2),
for 13 months after the date of the test which it
certifies.
(5)
(a) If throughout any period of 90
days the holder of a licence has not at any time provided at a particular
place or for a
particular sector and with the aid of the type of radar
equipment, if any, specified in a certificate of competence, the type
of air
traffic control service specified in the rating to which the certificate of
competence relates, the certificate shall,
without prejudice to the
Governor's powers under article 81 of this Order, cease to be valid for that
place or sector at the
end of that period.
(b) Upon a certificate of competence ceasing to be valid for a place or
sector the holder of the licence shall forthwith inform
the person who is
approved pursuant to article 88 of this Order to provide an air traffic
control service at that place or
for that sector to that effect and shall
forward the licence to a person approved by the Governor for the purpose who
shall
endorse the licence accordingly and return it to the holder forthwith.
(6) Every licence to act as
a student air traffic controller shall be valid only for the purpose of
authorising the holder to act as an air traffic controller under the
supervision of another person who is present at the time
and who is the
holder of an air traffic controller's licence entitling him to provide
unsupervised the type of air traffic
control service which is being provided
by the student air traffic controller and who is approved by the Governor for
this
purpose.
(7) A licence to act as an air traffic controller or
a student air traffic controller shall not be
valid unless the holder of the
licence has signed his name thereon in ink with his ordinary signature.
(8) Every holder of an air traffic controller's
licence or a student air traffic controller's licence
shall, upon such
occasions as the Governor may require, submit himself to such examinations
and tests (including in particular
medical examinations) and furnish such
evidence as to his knowledge, experience, competence and skill and undergo
such courses
of training as the Governor may require.
(9) On the basis of the medical examination referred
to in paragraph (8), the Governor or any person
approved by him as competent
to do so may issue a medical certificate subject to such conditions as he
thinks fit to the effect
that the holder of the licence has been assessed as
fit to perform the functions to which the licence relates. The certificate
shall, subject to article 95 of this Order, be valid for such period as is
therein specified, and shall be deemed to form part
of the licence.
(10)
(a) The holder of an air traffic
controller's licence shall not act as an air traffic controller unless his
licence includes
a medical certificate issued and in force under paragraph
(9).
(b) The holder of a student air traffic controller's licence shall not act in
accordance with paragraph (6) unless his licence
includes a medical
certificate issued and in force under paragraph (9).
(11) For the purpose of this
Part of this Order and Schedule 9 thereto, "acting as an air traffic
controller" shall mean the giving of instructions or advice or both
instructions and advice by means of radio signals
(whether directly or
indirectly via a person acting in accordance with article 94(3) of this
Order) to aircraft in the interests
of safety.
Approval of courses and persons
93. Without prejudice to any other provision of this
Order the Governor may, for the purposes of this Part of this Order, either
absolutely or subject to such conditions as he thinks fit:
(a) approve any course of training
or instruction;
(b) authorise a person to conduct such examinations or tests as he may
specify; and
(c) approve a person to provide any course of training or instruction.
Prohibiting of unlicensed air traffic controllers
and student air traffic controllers
94. - (1) Subject to paragraphs (3), (4) and
(5), a person shall not act as an air traffic controller or hold himself out,
whether by use of a radio call sign or in any other way, as a person who may
so act unless he is the holder of, and complies
with the terms of:
(a) a valid student air traffic
controller's licence granted under this Order and he is supervised in
accordance with article
92(6) or this Order;
(b) a valid air traffic controller's licence so granted authorising him to
provide that type of service at that place or for
that sector and with the
type of radar equipment being used (if any); or
(c) a valid air traffic controller's licence so granted which does not
authorise him to provide that type of service at that
place or for that
sector and with the type of radar equipment being used (if any) but he is
supervised as though he was the
holder of a student air traffic controller's
licence.
(2) A person shall not act
as an air traffic controller unless he has identified himself in such a
manner
as may be notified.
(3) A licence shall not be required by any person
who, acting in the course of his employment, passes
on such instructions or
advice as he has been instructed so to do by the holder of an air traffic
controller's licence which
entitles that holder to give such instructions or
advice.
(4) Nothing in this article shall prohibit the holder
of a valid air traffic controller's licence from
providing at any place or
for any sector for which the licence includes a valid certificate of
competence, information to aircraft
in flight in the interests of safety.
(5) A licence shall not be required by any person who
acts in the course of his duty as a member of
any of Her Majesty's naval,
military or air forces or a visiting force.
Incapacity of air traffic controllers
95. - (1) Every holder of an air traffic
controller's licence granted under article 92 of this Order who:
(a) suffers any personal injury or
illness involving incapacity to undertake the functions to which his licence
relates throughout
a period of 20 consecutive days; or
(b) in the case of a woman, has reason to believe that she is pregnant;
shall inform the Governor in writing of such injury,
illness or pregnancy as soon as possible.
(2) An air traffic controller's licence shall be
deemed to be suspended on the expiry of the period
of injury or illness
referred to in paragraph (1)(a). The suspension of the licence shall cease:
(a) upon the holder being
medically examined under arrangements made by the Governor and pronounced fit
to resume his functions
under the licence; or
(b) upon the Governor exempting the holder from the requirement of a medical
examination subject to such conditions as the
Governor may think fit.
Prohibition of drunkenness etc. of controllers
96. A person shall not when exercising the privileges
of an air traffic controller's licence be under the influence of drink or a
drug to such an extent as to impair his capacity to exercise such privileges.
Fatigue of air traffic controllers-air traffic controllers'
responsibilities
97. A person holding an air traffic controller's
licence shall not act as an air traffic controller if he knows or suspects
that
he is suffering from or, having regard to the circumstances of the
period of duty to be undertaken, is likely to suffer from,
such fatigue as
may endanger the safety of any aircraft to which an air traffic control
service may be provided.
Licensing of flight information service officers
98. - (1)
(a) Subject to sub-paragraph (b),
the Governor shall grant a licence subject to such conditions as he thinks
fit to any person
to act as a flight information service officer upon his
being satisfied that the applicant is a fit person to hold the licence
and is
qualified by reason of his knowledge, experience, competence, skill and
physical and mental fitness so to act, and for
that purpose the applicant
shall furnish such evidence and undergo such examinations and tests and
undertake such courses of
training as the Governor may require of him.
(b) The Governor shall not grant such a licence to any person under the age
of 18 years.
(2)
(a) Subject to article 81 of this
Order, a licence to act as a flight information service officer shall remain
in force for
the period indicated in the licence and may be renewed by the
Governor from time to time, upon his being satisfied that the applicant
is a
fit person and is qualified as aforesaid.
(b) If no period is indicated in the licence it shall remain in force,
subject as aforesaid, for the lifetime of the holder.
(3)
(a) The holder of a flight
information service officer's licence shall not be entitled to provide a
flight information service
at an aerodrome or area control centre unless that
aerodrome or area control centre has been specified in the licence by a
person authorised by the Governor for the purpose and the licence has been
validated in respect of that aerodrome or area control
centre by a person
authorised for the purpose by the Governor.
(b) If, throughout any period of 90 days the holder of the licence has not at
any time provided such a service at a particular
aerodrome or area control
centre, the licence shall cease to be valid for that aerodrome or area
control centre at the end
of that period until the licence has been
revalidated in respect of that aerodrome or area control centre by a person
authorised
by the Governor for the purpose.
(4) A licence to act as a
flight information service officer shall not be valid unless the holder of
the licence has signed his name thereon in ink with his ordinary signature.
(5) Every holder of a flight information service
officer's licence shall upon such occasions as the
Governor may require,
submit himself to such examinations and tests and furnish such evidence as to
his knowledge, experience,
competence and skill and undergo such courses of
training as the Governor may require.
Prohibition of unlicensed flight information service officers
99. - (1) A person shall not provide at any
aerodrome or area control centre a flight information service or hold himself
out, whether by use of a radio call sign or in any other way, as a person who
may provide such a service unless he is the holder
of and complies with the
terms of a flight information service officer's licence granted under this
Order authorising him to
provide such a service at that aerodrome or area
control centre.
(2) A person shall not provide a flight information
service unless he has identified himself in such
a manner as may be notified.
Flight information service manual
100. A
person shall not provide a flight information service at any aerodrome or
area control centre unless:
(a) the service is provided in
accordance with the standards and procedures specified in a flight
information service manual
in respect of that aerodrome or area control
centre;
(b) the manual is produced to the Governor within a reasonable time after a
request for its production is made by the Governor;
and
(c) such amendments or additions have been made to the manual as the Governor
may from time to time require.
PART X
Aerodromes, Aeronautical Lights and Dangerous Lights
Aerodromes-public transport of passengers and instruction in flying
101. - (1)
An aircraft to which this paragraph applies shall not take off or land at a
place in the Territory other than:
(a) an aerodrome licensed under
this Order for the take-off and landing of such aircraft; or
(b) a Government aerodrome notified as available for the take-off and landing
of such aircraft, or in respect of which the
person in charge of the
aerodrome has given his permission for the particular aircraft to take off or
land as the case may
be;
and in accordance with any conditions subject to which
the aerodrome may have been licensed or notified, or subject to which such
permission may have been given.
(2) Subject to paragraph (3), paragraph (1) applies
to:
(a) aeroplanes of which the
maximum total weight authorised exceeds 2,730 kg, and which are flying:
(i) for the purpose of the public
transport of passengers;
(ii) for the purpose of instruction in flying given to any person for the
purpose of becoming qualified for the grant of a
pilot's licence or the
inclusion of an aircraft rating, a night rating or a night qualification in a
licence; or
(iii) for the purpose of carrying out flying tests in respect of the grant of
a pilot's licence or the inclusion of an aircraft
rating or a night rating in
a licence;
(b) aeroplanes of which the maximum
total weight authorised does not exceed 2,730 kg engaged on either:
(i) scheduled journeys for the
purpose of the public transport of passengers;
(ii) flights for the purpose of the public transport of passengers beginning
and ending at the same aerodrome;
(iii) flights for the purpose of:
(aa) instruction in flying given
to any person for the purpose of becoming qualified for the grant of a
pilot's licence or the
inclusion of an aircraft rating, a night rating or a
night qualification in a licence; or
(bb) a flying test in respect of the grant of a pilot's licence or the
inclusion of an aircraft rating, a night rating or a
night qualification in a
licence; or
(iv) flights for the purpose of
the public transport of passengers at night;
(c) helicopters and gyroplanes
engaged on such flights as are specified in sub-paragraphs (b)(i) and (iii);
and
(d) gliders (other than gliders being flown under arrangements made by a
flying club and carrying no person other than a member
of the club) which are
flying for the purpose of the public transport of passengers or for the
purpose of instruction in flying.
(3) Nothing in paragraph (1)
shall apply to or in relation to an aircraft flying under and in accordance
with the terms of a police air operator's certificate.
(4)
(a) Subject to sub-paragraph (c),
the person in charge of any area in the Territory intended to be used for the
taking off or
landing of helicopters at night other than such a place as is
specified in paragraph (1) shall cause to be in operation, whenever
a
helicopter flying for the purpose of the public transport of passengers is
taking off or landing at that area by night, such
lighting as will enable the
pilot of the helicopter:
(i) in the case of landing, to
identify the landing area in flight, to determine the landing direction and
to make a safe approach
and landing; and
(ii) in the case of taking off, to make a safe take-off.
(b) Subject to sub-paragraph (c),
a helicopter flying for the purpose of the public transport of passengers at
night shall not
take off or land at a place to which sub-paragraph (a)
applies unless there is in operation such lighting.
(c) Nothing in this paragraph shall apply to or in relation to an aircraft
flying under and in accordance with the terms of
a police air operator's
certificate.
Use of Government aerodromes
102. The
Governor may cause to be notified, subject to such conditions as he thinks
fit, any Government aerodrome as an aerodrome
available for the take-off and
landing of aircraft engaged on flights for the purpose of the public
transport of passengers
or for the purpose of instruction in flying or of any
classes of such aircraft.
Licensing of aerodromes
103.
- (1) The Governor shall grant a licence in respect of any
aerodrome in the Territory if he is satisfied that:
(a) the applicant is competent,
having regard to his previous conduct and experience, his equipment,
organisation, staffing,
maintenance and other arrangements, to secure that
the aerodrome and the airspace within which its visual traffic pattern is
normally contained are safe for use by aircraft;
(b) the aerodrome is safe for use by aircraft, having regard in particular to
the physical characteristics of the aerodrome
and of its surroundings; and
(c) the aerodrome manual submitted pursuant to paragraph (7) is adequate.
(2) An aerodrome licence may
be granted subject to such conditions as the Governor thinks fit and shall,
subject to article 81 of this Order, remain in force for the period specified
in the licence.
(3) Without prejudice to the generality of paragraph
(2), if the applicant so requests the Governor
may grant a licence (in this
Order referred to as "a licence for public use") which shall be
subject to the condition
that the aerodrome shall at all times when it is
available for the take-off or landing of aircraft be so available to all
persons
on equal terms and conditions.
(4) The holder of an aerodrome licence granted under
this Order (in this article called "an aerodrome
licence holder")
shall:
(a) furnish to any person on
request information concerning the terms of the licence; and
(b) in the case of a licence for public use, cause to be notified the time
during which the aerodrome will be available for
the take-off or landing of
aircraft engaged on flights for the purpose of the public transport of
passengers or instruction
in flying.
(5) The holder of an
aerodrome licence granted under this Order shall not contravene or cause or
permit
to be contravened any condition of the aerodrome licence at any time
in relation to such aircraft engaged on such flights as are
specified in
article 101(2) of this Order, but the licence shall not cease to be valid by
reason only of such a contravention.
(6) An aerodrome licence holder shall take all reasonable
steps to secure that the aerodrome and the
airspace within which its visual
traffic pattern is normally contained are safe at all times for use by
aircraft.
(7) Upon making an application for an aerodrome
licence the applicant shall submit to the Governor
an aerodrome manual for
that aerodrome.
(8) An aerodrome manual required pursuant to this
article shall contain all such information and instructions
as may be
necessary to enable the aerodrome operating staff to perform their duties as
such including, in particular, information
and instructions relating to the
matters specified in Schedule 16 to this Order.
(9) Every aerodrome licence holder shall:
(a) furnish to the Governor any
amendments or additions to the aerodrome manual before or immediately after
they come into effect;
(b) without prejudice to sub-paragraph (a), make such amendments or additions
to the aerodrome manual as the Governor may require
for the purpose of
ensuring the safe operation of aircraft at the aerodrome or the safety of air
navigation; and
(c) maintain the aerodrome manual and make such amendments as may be
necessary for the purpose of keeping its contents up to
date.
(10)
(a) Every aerodrome licence holder
shall make available to each member of the aerodrome operating staff a copy
of the aerodrome
manual, or a copy of every part of the aerodrome manual
which is relevant to his duties and shall ensure that each such copy is
kept
up to date.
(b) Every aerodrome licence holder shall take all reasonable steps to secure
that each member of the aerodrome operating staff:
(i) is aware of the contents of
every part of the aerodrome manual which is relevant to his duties as such;
and
(ii) undertakes his duties as such in conformity with the relevant provisions
of the manual.
(11) For the purposes of
this article:
(a) "aerodrome operating
staff" means all persons, whether or not the aerodrome licence holder
and whether or not
employed by the aerodrome licence holder, whose duties are
concerned either with ensuring that the aerodrome and airspace within
which
its visual traffic pattern is normally contained are safe for use by
aircraft, or whose duties require them to have access
to the aerodrome
manoeuvring area or apron;
(b) "visual traffic pattern" means the aerodrome traffic zone of
the aerodrome, or, in the case of an aerodrome which
is not notified for the
purposes of rule 39 of the Rules of the Air, the airspace which would
comprise the aerodrome traffic
zone of the aerodrome if it was so notified.
Aeronautical radio station
104.
- (1) A person shall not cause or permit any aeronautical radio
station to be established or used unless its purpose
has been approved by the
Governor and the equipment thereof is of a type the specification of which is
approved by the Governor
in relation to the purpose for which it is to be
used.
(2)
(a) Subject to sub-paragraph (b),
the person in charge of an aeronautical radio station the purpose of which is
to provide a
navigational aid by radio or radar to an aircraft making an
approach to land or landing at an aerodrome, shall not cause or permit
that
aeronautical radio station to provide such navigational aid unless all
aeronautical radio stations operated by that person
at that aerodrome are:
(i) installed, modified and
maintained in a manner approved by the Governor; and
(ii) flight checked by the Governor or by a person approved by the Governor
for that purpose on such occasions as the Governor
may require.
(b) The provisions of this
paragraph shall not apply to any aeronautical radio station which is used
solely for the purpose
of enabling communications to be made by or on behalf
of the operator of an aircraft and the commander thereof.
(3) The person in charge of
an aeronautical radio station at an aerodrome for which a licence for public
use has been granted shall cause to be notified in relation to that
aeronautical radio station the type and hours of operation
of any service
which is available for use by any aircraft, and in approving the purpose for
which an aeronautical radio station
is to be used at any other aerodrome the
Governor may if he thinks fit require the person in charge of the
aeronautical radio
station to cause such information as aforesaid to be
notified.
(4) For the purpose of this article an approval shall
be in writing and may be granted subject to such
conditions as the Governor
thinks fit.
(5) The provisions of this article shall not apply in
respect of any aeronautical radio station of
which the person in charge is
the Governor.
Aeronautical radio station records
105.
- (1) The person in charge of any aeronautical radio station, the
purpose of which is to provide navigational aid
by radio or radar to an
aircraft making an approach to land or landing at an aerodrome, shall in
respect of all aeronautical
radio stations operated by him at that aerodrome:
(a) keep a written record of
functional tests, flight checks and particulars of any overhaul, repair,
replacement or modification
thereof; and
(b) preserve the written record for a period of one year or such longer
period as the Governor may in a particular case direct
and shall within a
reasonable time after being requested to do so by an authorised person
produce such record to that person.
(2) The person in charge of
an aeronautical radio station which is used for the provision of an air
traffic control service by an air traffic control unit shall provide
apparatus which is capable of recording the terms of content
of any radio
message or signal transmitted to any aircraft either alone or in common with
other aircraft or received from any
aircraft by the air traffic control unit.
(3) The apparatus provided in compliance with
paragraph (2) shall be:
(a) of a type the specification of
which is approved by the Governor in relation to the particular aeronautical
radio station;
(b) installed, modified and maintained in a manner approved by the Governor;
and
(c) in operation at all times when the aeronautical radio station is in
operation for providing an air traffic control service;
and for the purpose of this article an approval
shall be in writing and may be granted subject to such conditions as the
Governor
thinks fit.
(4) The person in charge of an aeronautical radio
station shall ensure that each record made by the
apparatus provided in
compliance with paragraph (2) includes:
(a) the identification of the
aeronautical radio station;
(b) the date or dates on which the record was made;
(c) a means of determining the time at which each message or signal was
transmitted;
(d) the identity of the aircraft to or from which and the radio frequency on
which the message or signal was transmitted or
received; and
(e) the time at which the record started and finished.
(5) If at any time the
apparatus provided in compliance with paragraph (2) ceases to be capable of
recording
the matters required by this article to be included in the record
the person in charge of the aeronautical radio station shall
ensure that a
written record is kept in which the particulars specified in paragraph (4)
are recorded together with a summary
of communications exchanged between the
aeronautical radio station and aircraft.
(6) The person in charge or the aeronautical radio
station shall preserve any record made in compliance
with paragraphs (2) and
(5) for a period of 30 days from the date on which the message or signal was
recorded or for such longer
period as the Governor may in a particular case
direct, and shall, within a reasonable time after being requested to do so by
an authorised person, produce such record to that person.
(7)
(a) Subject to sub-paragraph (b),
a person required by this article to preserve any record by reason of his
being the person
in charge of the aeronautical radio station shall, if he
ceases to be such a person, continue to preserve the record as if he
had not
ceased to be such a person, and in the event of his death the duty to
preserve the record shall fall upon his personal
representative.
(b) If another person becomes the person in charge of the aeronautical radio
station the previous person in charge or his personal
representative shall
deliver the record to that other person on demand, and it shall be the duty
of that person to deal with
the record delivered to him as if he were that previous
person in charge.
(8) The provisions of this
article shall not apply in respect of any aeronautical radio station of which
the person in charge is the Governor.
Charges at aerodromes licensed for public use
106.
- (1) The Governor may, in relation to any aerodrome in respect of
which a licence for public use has been granted,
or to such aerodromes
generally or to any class thereof, prescribe the charges, or the maximum
charges, which may be made for
the use of the aerodrome and for any services
performed at the aerodrome to or in connection with aircraft, and may further
prescribe the conditions to be observed in relation to those charges and the
performance of those services.
(2) The licensee of an aerodrome in relation to which
the Governor has made any regulations under paragraph
(1) of this article
shall not cause or permit any charges to be made in contravention of those
regulations and shall cause
particulars of the prescribed charges to be kept
exhibited at the aerodrome in such a place and manner as to be readily
available
for the information of any person affected thereby.
(3) The licensee of any aerodrome in respect of which
a licence for public use has been granted shall,
when required by the
Governor, furnish to the Governor such particulars as he may require of the
charges established by the
licensee for the use of the aerodrome or of any
facilities provided at the aerodrome for the safety, efficiency or regularity
of air navigation.
Use of aerodromes by aircraft of Contracting States and of the
Commonwealth
107. The
person in charge of any aerodrome in the Territory which is open to public
use by aircraft registered in the Territory
(whether or not the aerodrome is
a licensed aerodrome) shall cause the aerodrome, and all air navigation
facilities provided
thereat, to be available for use by aircraft registered
in other Contracting States or in any part of the Commonwealth on the
same
terms and conditions as for use by aircraft registered in the Territory.
Noise and vibration caused by aircraft on aerodromes
108. The
conditions under which noise and vibration may be caused by aircraft
(including military aircraft) on Government aerodromes,
licensed aerodromes
or on aerodromes at which the manufacture, repair or maintenance of aircraft
is carried out by persons
carrying on business as manufacturers or repairers
of aircraft shall be as specified in regulation 14 in Schedule 14 to this
Order and section 41(2) of the Act as set out in Schedule 2 of the Civil
Aviation Act 1949 (Overseas Territories) Order 1969[7] shall
apply to any such aerodrome.
Aeronautical lights
109. - (1) Except with
the permission of the Governor and in accordance with any conditions subject
to which the permission
may be granted, a person shall not establish,
maintain or alter the character of:
(a)
(i) subject to sub-paragraph (ii),
an aeronautical beacon within the Territory;
(ii) in the case of an aeronautical beacon which is or may be visible from
the waters within an area of a general lighthouse
authority, the Governor
shall not give his permission for the purpose of this article except with the
consent of that authority;
or
(b) any aeronautical ground light
(other than an aeronautical beacon) at an aerodrome licensed under this
Order, or which forms
part of the lighting system for use by aircraft taking
off from or landing at such an aerodrome.
(2) A person shall not
intentionally or negligently damage or interfere with any aeronautical ground
light established by or with the permission of the Governor.
Dangerous lights
110.
- (1) A person shall not exhibit in the Territory any light which:
(a) by reason of its glare is
liable to endanger aircraft taking off from or landing at an aerodrome; or
(b) by reason of its liability to be mistaken for an aeronautical ground
light is liable to endanger aircraft.
(2) If any light which
appears to the Governor to be such a light as aforesaid is exhibited the
Governor
may cause a notice to be served upon the person who is the occupier
of the place where the light is exhibited or has charge of
the light,
directing that person, within a reasonable time to be specified in the
notice, to take such steps as may be specified
in the notice for
extinguishing or screening the light and for preventing for the future the
exhibition of any other light
which may similarly endanger aircraft.
(3) The notice may be served either personally or by
post, or by affixing it in some conspicuous place
near to the light to which
it relates.
(4) In the case of a light which is or may be visible
from any waters within the area of a general
lighthouse authority, the power
of the Governor under this article shall not be exercised except with the
consent of that authority.
Customs and Excise airports
111.
- (1) The Governor may, subject to such conditions as he may think
fit, by order designate any aerodrome to be a
place for the landing or
departure of aircraft for the purpose of the enactments for the time being in
force relating to customs
and excise.
(2) The Governor may by order revoke any designation
so made.
Aviation fuel at aerodromes
112.
- (1) Subject to paragraph (2), a person who has the management of
any aviation fuel installation on an aerodrome
in the Territory shall not
cause or permit any fuel to be delivered to that installation or from it to
an aircraft unless:
(a) when the aviation fuel is
delivered into the installation he is satisfied that:
(i) the installation is capable of
storing and dispensing the fuel so as not to render it unfit for use in
aircraft;
(ii) the installation is marked in a manner appropriate to the grade of fuel
stored or if different grades are stored in different
parts each part is so
marked; and
(iii) in the case of delivery into the installation or part thereof from a
vehicle or vessel, the fuel has been sampled and
is of a grade appropriate to
that installation or that part of the installation as the case may be and is
fit for use in aircraft;
(b) when any aviation fuel is
dispensed from the installation he is satisfied as the result of sampling
that the fuel is fit
for use in aircraft.
(2) Paragraph (1) shall not
apply in respect of fuel which has been removed from an aircraft and is
intended for use in another aircraft operated by the same operator as the
aircraft from which it has been removed.
(3) A person to whom paragraph (1) applies shall keep
a written record in respect of each installation
of which he has the
management, which record shall include:
(a) particulars of the grade and
quantity of aviation fuel delivered and the date of delivery;
(b) particulars of all samples taken of the aviation fuel and of the results
of tests of those samples; and
(c) particulars of the maintenance and cleaning of the installation;
and he shall preserve the written record for a
period of 12 months or such longer period as the Governor may in a particular
case direct and shall, within a reasonable time after being requested to do
so by an authorised person, produce such record to
that person.
(4)
(a) A person shall not cause or
permit any aviation fuel to be dispensed for use in an aircraft if he knows
or has reason to
believe that the aviation fuel is not fit for use in
aircraft.
(b) If it appears to the Governor or an authorised person that any aviation
fuel is intended or likely to be delivered in contravention
of any provision
of this article, the Governor or that authorised person may direct the person
having the management of the
installation not to permit aviation fuel to be
dispensed from that installation until the direction has been revoked by the
Governor or by an authorised person.
(5) For the purpose of this
article:
"aviation
fuel" means fuel intended for use in aircraft;
"aviation
fuel installation" means any apparatus or container, including a
vehicle, designed, manufactured or adapted
for the storage of aviation fuel
or for the delivery of such fuel to an aircraft.
PART XI
General
Restriction with respect to carriage for valuable consideration in
aircraft registered outside the Territory
113.
- (1) Notwithstanding anything in any regulations made under
Section 13 of the Act, an aircraft registered in a
Contracting State, other
than the United Kingdom or any of the Territories, or in a foreign country,
shall not take on board
or discharge any passengers or cargo in the
Territory, being passengers or cargo carried or to be carried for valuable
consideration,
except with the permission of the Secretary of State granted
under this article to the operator or charterer of the aircraft or
to the
Government of the country in which the aircraft is registered, and in
accordance with any conditions to which such permission
may be subject.
(2) Without prejudice to the provisions of Article 81
or 82 of this Order or of paragraph (1), any
breach by a person to whom a
permission has been granted under this article of any condition to which that
permission was subject
shall constitute a contravention of this article.
(3) The Secretary of State may, in any particular
case, or class of cases, delegate to the Governor
the exercise of the powers
conferred on the Secretary of State under paragraph (1); and where the
exercise of the powers conferred
under paragraph (1) is so delegated, the
Governor shall, in exercising those powers, comply with any general
guidelines or
specific directions which may from time to time be conveyed to
him by the Secretary of State.
Filing and approval of tariffs
114.
- (1) Where a permission granted under this article contains a
tariff provision, the Secretary of State may, in
any particular case or class
of cases, delegate to the Governor the exercise of the power to approve or
disapprove the tariff
which the operator or charterer of the aircraft
concerned proposes to apply on flights to which the permission relates, and
where the power to approve or disapprove tariffs is so delegated, the
Governor shall, in exercising that power, comply with any
general guidelines
or specific directions which may from time to time be conveyed to him by the
Secretary of State.
(2) For the purposes of this article, "tariff
provision" means a condition as to any of the
following matters:
(a) the price to be charged for
the carriage of passengers, baggage or cargo on flights to which a permission
granted under
article 113(1) of this Order relates;
(b) any additional goods, services or other benefits to be provided in
connection with such carriage;
(c) the prices, if any, to be charged for any such additional goods, services
or benefits; and
(d) the commission, or rates of commission, to be paid in relation to the
carriage of passengers, baggage or cargo;
and includes any condition as to the applicability
of any such price, the provision of any such goods, services or benefits or
the payment of any such commission or of commission at any such rate.
Restriction with respect to aerial photography, aerial survey and aerial
work in aircraft registered outside the Territory
115.
- (1) An aircraft registered in a Contracting State other than the
United Kingdom or any of the Territories, or
in a foreign country, shall not
fly over the Territory for the purpose of aerial photography or aerial survey
(whether or not
valuable consideration is given or promised in respect of the
flight or the purpose of the flight) or for the purpose of any other
form of
aerial work except with the permission of the Governor granted under this
article to the operator or the charterer
of the aircraft and in accordance
with any conditions to which such permission may be subject.
(2) Without prejudice to article 81 or 82 of this
Order or to paragraph (1), any breach by a person
to whom a permission has
been granted under this article of any condition to which that permission was
subject shall constitute
a contravention of this article.
Flights over any foreign country
116.
- (1) The operator or commander of an aircraft registered in the
Territory (or, if the operator's principal place
of business or permanent
residence is in the Territory, any other aircraft) which is being flown over
any foreign country shall
not allow that aircraft to be used for a purpose
which is prejudicial to the security, public order or public health of, or to
the safety of air navigation in relation to, that country.
(2) A person does not contravene paragraph (1) if he
neither knew nor suspected that the aircraft was
being or was to be used for
a purpose referred to in paragraph (1).
(3) The operator or commander of an aircraft
registered in the Territory (or, if the operator's principal
place of
business or permanent residence is in the Territory, any other aircraft)
which is being flown over any foreign country
shall comply with any
directions given by the appropriate aeronautical authorities of that country
whenever:
(a) the flight has not been duly
authorised; or
(b) there are reasonable grounds for the appropriate aeronautical authorities
to believe that the aircraft is being or will
be used for a purpose which is
prejudicial to the security, public order or public health of, or to the
safety of air navigation
in relation to, that country;
unless the lives of persons on board or the safety
of the aircraft would thereby be endangered.
(4) A person does not contravene paragraph (3) if he
neither knew nor suspected that directions were
being given by the
appropriate aeronautical authorities.
(5) The requirement in paragraph (3) is without
prejudice to any other requirement to comply with directions
of an aeronautical
authority.
(6) In this article "appropriate aeronautical
authorities" includes any person, whether a
member of a country's
military or civil authorities, authorised under the law of the foreign
country to issue directions to
aircraft flying over that country.
Mandatory reporting
117.
- (1) Subject to the provisions of this article, every person who:
(a) is the operator or commander
of:
(i) a public transport aircraft
registered in the Territory;
(ii) a public transport aircraft not registered in the Territory but operated
by the holder of an aircraft operator's certificate
granted by the Governor;
or
(iii) an aircraft registered in the Territory in respect of which there is in
force a certificate of airworthiness in any category
and which is powered by
one or more turbine engines;
(b) carries on the business of
manufacturing, repairing or overhauling such an aircraft, or any equipment or
part thereof;
(c) signs a certificate of maintenance review, or of release to service in
respect of such an aircraft, part or equipment;
(d) performs a function for which he requires an air traffic controller's
licence;
(e) is the licensee or manager of a licensed aerodrome;
(f) performs a function connected with the installation, modification, maintenance,
repair, overhaul, flight checking or inspection
of equipment on the ground
which is used or intended to be used for the purpose of or in connection with
the provision of an
air traffic control service or navigational aid to an
aircraft;
shall:
(i) make a report to the Governor
of any reportable occurrence of which, he knows and which is of such a
description as is specified
in regulation 18 in Schedule 14: the report shall
be made within such time, by such means, and shall contain such information
as
is so specified and it shall be presented in such form as the Governor may in
any particular case approve; and
(ii) make a report to the Governor, within such time, by such means; and
containing such information as the Governor may specify
in a notice in
writing served upon him, being information which is in his possession or
control and which relates to a reportable
occurrence which has been reported
by him or by another person to the Governor in accordance with this article.
(2)
(a) Subject to sub-paragraph (b),
in this article "reportable occurrence" means:
(i) any incident relating to such
an aircraft or any defect in or malfunctioning of such an aircraft or any
part or equipment
of such an aircraft, being an incident, malfunctioning or
defect endangering, or which if not corrected would endanger, the aircraft,
its occupants or any other person; and
(ii) any defect in or malfunctioning of any facility on the ground used or
intended to be used for purposes of or in connection
with the operation of
such an aircraft, being a defect or malfunctioning endangering, or which if
not corrected would endanger,
such an aircraft or its occupants.
(b) Any accident or serious
incident notified to the Governor in pursuance of regulations made under
section 75 of the Civil
Aviation Act 1982 as set out in Schedule 1 to the
Civil Aviation Act 1982 (Overseas Territories) Order 2001[8]
shall not constitute a reportable occurrence for the purposes of this
article.
(3)
Subject to paragraph (1)(f)(ii), nothing in this article shall require a
person to report any occurrence
which he has reason to believe has been or
will be reported by another person to the Governor in accordance with this article.
(4) A person shall not make any report under this
article if he knows or has reason to believe that
the report is false in any
particular.
(5)
(a) Without prejudice to article 53(2), (4) and (5) and subject to
article 80 of this Order and sub-paragraph (b), the operator
of an aircraft
shall, if he has reason to believe that a report has been or will be made in
pursuance of this article, preserve
any data from a flight data recorder or a
combined cockpit voice recorder/flight data recorder relevant to the
reportable occurrence
for 14 days from the date on which a report of that
occurrence is made to the Governor or for such longer period as the Governor
may in a particular case direct.
(b) The record referred to in sub-paragraph (a) may be erased if the aircraft
is outside the Territory and it is not reasonably
practicable to preserve the
record until the aircraft reaches the Territory.
Power to
prevent aircraft flying
118. - (1) If it
appears to the Governor or an authorised person that any aircraft is intended
or likely to be flown:
(a) in such circumstances that any
provision of article 3, 5, 6, 8, 20, 21, 35, 53, 59, 60, 113, 115 or 116 of
this Order or
any provision relating to the licensing of air transport in the
Territory would be contravened in relation to the flight;
(b) in such circumstances that the flight would be in contravention of any
other provision of this Order, of any regulations
made thereunder and be a
cause of danger to any person or property whether or not in the aircraft; or
(c) while in a condition unfit for the flight, whether or not the flight
would otherwise be in contravention of any provision
of this Order, of any
regulation made thereunder;
the Governor or that authorised person may direct
the operator or the commander of the aircraft that he is not to permit the
aircraft to make the particular flight or any other flight of such
description as may be specified in the direction, until the
direction has
been revoked by the Governor or by an authorised person, and the Governor or
that authorised person may take
such steps as are necessary to detain the
aircraft.
(2) For the purpose of paragraph (1) the Governor and
any authorised person may enter upon and inspect
any aircraft.
Right of access to aerodromes and other places
119.
- (1) Subject to paragraph (2), the Governor and any authorised
person shall have the right of access at all reasonable
times:
(a) to any aerodrome, for the
purpose of inspecting the aerodrome;
(b) to any aerodrome for the purpose of inspecting any aircraft on the
aerodrome or any document which he has the power to
demand under this Order,
or for the purpose of detaining any aircraft under the provisions of this
Order; and
(c) to any place where an aircraft has landed, for the purpose of inspecting
the aircraft or any document which he has power
to demand under this Order
and for the purpose of detaining the aircraft under the provisions of this
Order.
(2) Access to a Government
aerodrome shall only be obtained with the permission of the person in charge
of the aerodrome.
Obstruction of persons
120. A
person shall not intentionally obstruct or impede any person acting in the
exercise of his powers or the performance of his
duties under this Order.
Enforcement of directions
121. Any
person who without reasonable excuse fails to comply with any direction given
to him under any provision of this Order
or any regulations made thereunder
shall be deemed for the purposes of this Order to have contravened that
provision.
Penalties
122.
- (1) If any provision of this Order or of any regulations made
thereunder is contravened in relation to an aircraft,
the operator of that
aircraft and the commander thereof and, in the case of a contravention of
article 113 of this Order, the
charterer of that aircraft, shall (without
prejudice to the liability of any other person for that contravention) be
deemed
for the purposes of the following provisions of this article to have
contravened that provision unless he proves that the contravention
occurred
without his consent or connivance and that he exercised all due diligence to
prevent the contravention.
(2) If it is proved that an act or omission of any
person which would otherwise have been a contravention
by that person of a
provision of this Order or of any regulations made thereunder was due to any
cause not avoidable by the
exercise of reasonable care by that person the act
or omission shall be deemed not to be a contravention by that person of that
provision.
(3) Where a person is charged with contravening a
provision of this Order or of any regulations made
thereunder by reason of
his having been a member of the flight crew of an aircraft on a flight for
the purpose of public transport
or aerial work the flight shall be treated
(without prejudice to the liability of any other person under this Order) as
not
having been for that purpose if he proves that he neither knew nor
suspected that the flight was for that purpose.
(4) If any person contravenes any provision of this
Order or of any regulations made thereunder not
being a provision referred to
in paragraphs (5) or (6), he shall be guilty of an offence and liable on
summary conviction to
a fine not exceeding 1,000.
(5) If any person contravenes any provision specified
in Part A of Schedule 12 to this Order he shall
be guilty of an offence and
liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding 2,500.
(6) If any person contravenes any provision specified
in Part B of the said Schedule he shall be guilty
of an offence and liable on
summary conviction to a fine not exceeding 5,000 and on conviction on
indictment to a fine or
imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years or
both.
Extra-territorial effect of the Order
123.
- (1) Except where the context otherwise requires, the provisions
of this Order:
(a) insofar as they apply (whether
by express reference or otherwise) to aircraft registered in the Territory,
shall apply to
such aircraft wherever they may be;
(b) insofar as they apply as aforesaid to other aircraft shall apply to such
other aircraft when they are within the Territory;
(c) insofar as they prohibit, require or regulate (whether by express
reference or otherwise) the doing of anything by persons
in or by any of the
crew of, any aircraft registered in the Territory, shall apply to such
persons and crew, wherever they
may be, and
(d) insofar as they prohibit, require or regulate as aforesaid the doing of
anything in relation to any aircraft registered
in the Territory by other
persons shall, where such persons are Commonwealth citizens, British
protected persons or citizens
of the Republic of Ireland, apply to them
wherever they may be.
(2) Nothing in this article
shall be construed as extending to make any person guilty of an offence in
any case in which it is provided by section 3(1) of the British Nationality
Act 1948[9]
(which limits the criminal liability of certain persons who are not citizens
of the United Kingdom and colonies) that that
person shall not be guilty of
an offence.
Application of Order to British-controlled aircraft not registered in the
Territory
124. The Governor may direct that
such of the provisions of this Order and of any regulations made or having
effect thereunder as
may be specified in the direction shall have effect as
if reference in those provisions to aircraft registered in the Territory
included references to the aircraft specified in the direction, being an aircraft
not so registered but for the time being
under the management of a person
who, or of persons each of whom, is qualified to hold a legal or beneficial
interest by way
of ownership in an aircraft registered in the Territory.
Application of Order to the Crown and visiting forces, etc.
125. - (1)
(a) Subject to the following
provisions of this article, the provisions of this Order shall apply to or in
relation to aircraft
belonging to or exclusively employed in the service of
Her Majesty as they apply to or in relation to other aircraft.
(b) For the purposes of such application, the Department or other authority
for the time being responsible on behalf of Her
Majesty for the management of
the aircraft shall be deemed to be the operator of the aircraft and, in the
case of an aircraft
belonging to Her Majesty, to be the owner of the interest
of Her Majesty in the aircraft.
(c) Nothing in this article shall render liable to any penalty any Department
or other authority responsible on behalf of Her
Majesty for the management of
any aircraft.
(2) Save as otherwise
expressly provided the naval, military and air force authorities and members
of
any visiting force and any international headquarters and the members
thereof and property held or used for the purpose of such
a force or
headquarters shall be exempt from the provisions of this Order and of any
regulations made thereunder to the same
extent as if that force or
headquarters formed part of the forces of Her Majesty raised in the United
Kingdom and for the time
being serving in the Territory.
(3) Save as otherwise provided by paragraph (4),
article 70(4) and (9), article 71(2)(a), and article
108 of this Order and
the Rules of the Air, nothing in this Order shall apply to or in relation to
any military aircraft.
(4) Where a military aircraft is flown by a civilian
pilot and is not commanded by a person who is
acting in the course of his
duty as a member of any of Her Majesty's naval, military or air forces or as
a member of a visiting
force or international headquarters, the following
provisions of this Order shall apply on the occasion of that flight, that is
to say, articles 63, 64, 65 and 85 and in addition article 84 (so far as
applicable) shall apply unless the aircraft is flown
in compliance with
Military Flying Regulations (Joint Service Publication 318) or Flying Orders
to Contractors (Aviation Publication
67) issued by the Secretary of State.
Exemption from Order
126. The
Governor may exempt from any of the provisions of this Order (other than
articles 75, 77, 82, 113, 114, 115, 116 or 127
thereof) or any regulations
made thereunder, any aircraft or persons or classes of aircraft or persons,
either absolutely or
subject to such conditions as he thinks fit.
Appeal to Supreme Court
127.
- (1) An appeal shall lie to the Supreme Court or to such other
court as may be prescribed from any decision of
the Governor that a person is
not a fit person to hold a licence to act as an aircraft maintenance
engineer, member of the
flight crew of an aircraft, air traffic controller,
student air traffic controller or aerodrome flight information service
officer, and if the court is satisfied that on the evidence submitted to the
Governor he was wrong in so deciding, the court may
reverse the Governor's
decision and the Governor shall give effect to the court's determination.
(2) An appeal shall not lie from a decision of the
Governor that a person is not qualified to hold
the licence by reason of a
deficiency in his knowledge, experience, competence, skill, physical or
mental fitness.
(3) The respondent to any appeal under this article
shall be the Attorney General or other principal
legal officer of the
Government of the Territory.
(4) For the purposes of any provision relating to the
time within which an appeal may be brought, the
Governor's decision shall be
deemed to have been taken on the date on which the Governor furnished a
statement of his reasons
for the decision to the applicant for the licence,
or as the case may be, the holder or former holder of it.
Application of Order
128. The
provisions of this Order apply to the Territories mentioned in Schedule 18 to
this Order, any one of which is in this Order
referred to in the expression
"the Territory".
Regulations by the Governor: Fees
129.
- (1) The Governor may make regulations for prescribing anything
which, under the provisions of this Order, is to
be prescribed.
(2) The Governor, with the approval of a Secretary of
State, may make regulations amending the Air
Navigation (General) Regulations
in Schedule 14 to this Order.
(3) Without prejudice to the generality of paragraph
(1) of this article, such regulations may prescribe
the fees to be charged in
connection with the issue, validation, renewal, extension or variation of any
certificate, licence
or other document (including the issue of a copy
thereof), or the undergoing of any examination, test, inspection or
investigation
or the grant of any permission or approval, required by, or for
the purpose of, this Order or any regulations made thereunder.
(4)
(a) Upon an application being made
in connection with which any fee is chargeable in accordance with the said
provisions the
applicant may be required before the application is
entertained to pay the whole or to deposit a portion of the fee or fees so
chargeable. If, after such payment or deposit has been made, the application
is withdrawn by the applicant or otherwise ceases
to have effect or is
refused by the Governor, the Governor may, subject as hereinafter provided,
refund the amount of such
payment or deposit. Where the amount paid or
deposited is wholly or to any extent attributable to a fee chargeable in
respect
of an investigation which would have been carried out in connection
with the application if it had not been so withdrawn or ceased
to have effect
or been refused but which has not been carried out by reason only of such
withdrawal, cesser or refusal, the
Governor may refund the amount so
attributable, or, subject to paragraph (b), in a case where an investigation
has been partially
completed, so much of that amount as in the opinion of the
Governor is reasonable having regard to the stage to which the investigation
has progressed at the time of such withdrawal, cesser or refusal.
(b) If in any case the amount deposited by the applicant is not sufficient to
cover the fee, as ultimately assessed, chargeable
in respect of any
investigation in so far as the same has been carried out at the time when the
application is withdrawn by
him or otherwise ceases to have effect or is
refused by the Governor the amount representing the balance of such fee shall
be payable by the applicant.
In this paragraph the expression
"investigation" includes an inspection, examination, calculation or
test.
Interpretation
130.
- (1) In this Order, unless the context otherwise requires:
"The
Act" means the Civil Aviation Act 1949[10];
"Aerial work" has the meaning assigned to
it by article 131 of this Order;
"Aerial work aircraft" means an aircraft
(other than a public transport aircraft) flying, or intended by the operator
to fly, for the purpose of aerial work;
"Aerial work undertaking" means an
undertaking whose business includes the performance of aerial work;
"Aerobatic manoeuvres" includes loops,
spins, rolls, bunts, stall turns, inverted flying and any other similar
manoeuvre;
"Aerodrome" means any area of land or
water designed, equipped, set apart or commonly used for affording facilities
for the landing and departure of aircraft and includes any area or space,
whether on the ground, on the roof of a building or
elsewhere, which is
designed, equipped or set apart for affording facilities for the landing and
departure of aircraft capable
of descending or climbing vertically, but shall
not include any area the use of which for affording facilities for the
landing
and departure of aircraft has been abandoned and has not been
resumed;
"Aerodrome control service" means an air
traffic control service for any aircraft on the manoeuvring area or apron of
the aerodrome in respect of which the service is being provided or which is
flying in, or in the vicinity of, the aerodrome
traffic zone of that
aerodrome by visual reference to the surface;
"Aerodrome operating minima" in relation
to the operation of an aircraft at an aerodrome means the cloud ceiling and
runway visual range for take-off, and the decision height or minimum descent
height, runway visual range and visual reference
for landing, which are the
minimum for the operation of that aircraft at that aerodrome;
"Aerodrome traffic zone" means the
airspace specified below, being airspace in the vicinity of an aerodrome
which
is notified for the purposes of rule 39 of the Rules of the Air:
(a) in relation to such an aerodrome at which the length of the
longest runway is notified as 1,850 metres or less:
(i) subject to sub-paragraph (ii), the airspace extending from the
surface to a height of 2,000 ft above the level of the aerodrome
within the
area bounded by a circle centred on the notified mid-point of the longest
runway and having a radius of two nautical
miles;
(ii) where such an aerodrome traffic zone would extend less than one and a
half nautical miles beyond the end of any runway
at the aerodrome and this
sub-paragraph is notified as being applicable, sub-paragraph (b) shall apply
as though the length
of the longest runway is notified as greater than 1,850
metres;
(b) in relation to such an aerodrome at which the length of the
longest runway is notified as greater than 1,850 metres, the airspace
extending from the surface to a height of 2,000 ft above the level of the
aerodrome within the area bounded by a circle centred
on the notified
mid-point of the longest runway and having a radius of two and a half
nautical miles;
except any part
of that airspace which is within the aerodrome traffic zone of another
aerodrome which is notified for the purposes
of this Order as being the
controlling aerodrome;
"Aeronautical beacon" means an
aeronautical ground light which is visible either continuously or
intermittently to
designate a particular point on the surface of the earth;
"Aeronautical ground light" means any
light specifically provided as an aid to air navigation, other than a light
displayed on an aircraft;
"Aeronautical radio station" means a radio
station on the surface, which transmits or receives signals for the purpose
of assisting aircraft;
"Air traffic control unit" means a person
appointed by the Governor or by any other person maintaining an aerodrome or
place to give instructions, advice or information by means of radio signals
to aircraft in the interests of safety but does
not include a person so
appointed solely to provide a flight information service to aircraft, and
"air traffic control
service" shall be construed accordingly;
"Air transport undertaking" means an
undertaking whose business includes the undertaking of flights for the
purposes
of public transport of passengers or cargo;
"Annual costs" in relation to the
operation of an aircraft means the best estimate reasonably practicable at
the time
of a particular flight in respect of the year commencing on the
first day of January preceding the date of the flight, of the
costs of
keeping and maintaining and the indirect costs of operating the aircraft,
such costs in either case excluding direct
costs and being those actually and
necessarily incurred without a view to profit;
"Annual flying hours" means the best
estimate reasonably practicable at the time of a particular flight by an
aircraft
of the hours flown or to be flown by the aircraft in respect of the
year commencing on the first day of January preceding the
date of the flight;
"Approach control service" means an air
traffic control service for any aircraft which is not receiving an aerodrome
control service, which is flying in, or in the vicinity of the aerodrome
traffic zone of the aerodrome in respect of which
the service is being
provided, whether or not the aircraft is flying by visual reference to the
surface;
"Approach to landing" means that portion
of the flight of the aircraft, when approaching to land, in which it is
descending
below a height of 1,000 ft above the relevant specified decision
height or minimum descent height;
"Appropriate aeronautical radio station"
means in relation to an aircraft an aeronautical radio station serving the
area in which the aircraft is for the time being;
"Appropriate air traffic control unit"
means in relation to an aircraft either the air traffic control unit serving
the area in which the aircraft is for the time being or the air traffic
control unit serving the area which the aircraft intends
to enter and with
which unit the aircraft is required to communicate prior to entering that
area, as the case may be;
"Apron" means the part of an aerodrome
provided for the stationing of aircraft for the embarkation and
disembarkation
of passengers, for loading and unloading of cargo and for
parking;
"Area control centre" means an air traffic
control unit established to provide an area control service to aircraft
flying within a notified flight information region which are not receiving an
aerodrome control service or an approach control
service;
"Area control service" means an air
traffic control service for any aircraft which is flying neither in nor in
the
vicinity of an aerodrome traffic zone except for an aerodrome traffic
zone which has been notified as being subject to an area
control service;
"Area navigation equipment" means
equipment carried on board an aircraft which enables the aircraft to navigate
on
any desired flight path within the coverage of appropriate ground based
navigation aids or within the limits of that on-board
equipment or a
combination of the two;
"Authorised person" means any person
authorised by the Governor either generally or in relation to a particular
case
or class of cases, and references to a person authorised by the Governor
include references to the Director of Civil Aviation
in the Territory and the
holder for the time being of any office designated by the Governor;
"Beneficial interest" includes interests
arising under contract and other equitable interests;
"Cabin attendant" in relation to an
aircraft means a person on a flight for the purpose of public transport
carried
for the purpose of performing in the interests of the safety of
passengers duties to be assigned by the operator or the commander
of the
aircraft but who shall not act as a member of the flight crew;
"Captive balloon" means a balloon which
when in flight is attached by a restraining device to the surface;
"Captive flight" means flight by an
uncontrollable balloon during which it is attached to the surface by a
restraining
device;
"Cargo" includes mail and animals;
"Certificate of airworthiness" includes
any validation thereof and any flight manual, performance schedule or other
document, whatever its title, incorporated by reference in that certificate
relating to the certificate of airworthiness;
"Certificate of maintenance review" has
the meaning assigned to it by article 10(1) of this Order;
"Certificate of release to service" has
the meaning assigned to it by article 12(7) of this Order;
"Certificated for single pilot operation"
means an aircraft which is not required to carry more than one pilot by
virtue of any one or more of the following:
(a) the certificate of airworthiness duly issued or rendered valid
under the law of the country in which the aircraft is registered;
(b) if no certificate of airworthiness is required to be in force, the
certificate of airworthiness, if any, last in force
in respect of the
aircraft;
(c) if no certificate of airworthiness is or has previously been in force but
the aircraft is identical in design with an aircraft
in respect of which such
a certificate is or has been in force, the certificate of airworthiness which
is or has been in force
in respect of such an identical aircraft; or
(d) in the case of an aircraft flying in accordance with the conditions of a
permit to fly issued by the Governor, that permit
to fly;
"The Civil Aviation Authority" means the
body corporate constituted in accordance with the provisions of section 2 of
the Civil Aviation Act 1982[11];
"Class A airspace", "Class B
airspace", "Class C airspace", "Class D airspace"
and "Class
E airspace" mean airspace respectively notified as such;
"Cloud ceiling" in relation to an
aerodrome means the vertical distance from the elevation of the aerodrome to
the
lowest part of any cloud visible from the aerodrome which is sufficient
to obscure more than one-half of the sky so visible;
"Commander" in relation to an aircraft
means the member of the flight crew designated as commander of that aircraft
by the operator thereof, or, failing such a person, the person who is for the
time being the pilot in command of the aircraft;
"the Commonwealth" means the United
Kingdom, the Channel Islands, the Isle of Man, the countries mentioned in
Schedule
3 to the British Nationality Act 1981[12]
and all other territories forming part of Her Majesty's dominions or in which
Her Majesty has jurisdiction;
"Competent authority" means in relation to
the Territory, the Governor, and in relation to any other country the
authority
responsible under the law of that country for promoting the safety
of civil aviation;
"Conditional sale agreement" has the same
meaning as in section 189 of the Consumer Credit Act 1974[13];
"Congested area" in relation to a city,
town or settlement, means any area which is substantially used for
residential,
industrial, commercial or recreational purposes;
"Contracting State" means any State (including
the United Kingdom and any of the Territories) which is party to the
Convention on Civil Aviation signed on behalf of the Government of the United
Kingdom at Chicago on 7 December 1944;
"Controllable balloon" means a balloon,
not being a small balloon, which is capable of free controlled flight;
"Controlled airspace" means airspace which
has been notified as Class A, Class B, Class C, Class D or Class E airspace;
"Control area" means controlled airspace
which has been further notified as a control area and which extends upwards
from a notified altitude or flight level;
"Control zone" means controlled airspace
which has been further notified as a control zone and which extends upwards
from the surface;
"Co-pilot" in relation to an aircraft
means a pilot who in performing his duties as such is subject to the
direction
of another pilot carried in the aircraft;
"Country" includes a territory, except in
paragraph (3)(b);
"Crew" means a member of the flight crew,
a person carried on the flight deck who is appointed by the operator of the
aircraft to give or to supervise the training, experience, practice and
periodical tests required in respect of the flight
crew under article 34(3)
of this Order or a cabin attendant;
"Danger area" means airspace which has been
notified as such within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft
may take place or exist at such times as may be notified;
"Day" means the time from half an hour
before sunrise until half an hour after sunset (both times exclusive), sunset
and sunrise being determined at surface level;
"Decision height" in relation to the
operation of an aircraft at an aerodrome means the height in a precision
approach
at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual
reference to continue that approach has not been established;
"Declared distances" has the meaning which
has been notified;
"Direct costs" means, in respect of a
flight, the costs actually and necessarily incurred in connection with that
flight without a view to profit but excluding any remuneration payable to the
pilot for his services as such;
"Director" has the same meaning as in
section 53(1) of the Companies Act 1989[14];
"Flight" and "to fly" have the
meanings respectively assigned to them by paragraph (4);
"Flight crew" in relation to an aircraft
means those members of the crew of the aircraft who respectively undertake to
act as pilot, flight navigator, flight engineer and flight radiotelephony
operator of the aircraft;
"Flight information service unit" means a
person appointed by the Governor or by any other person maintaining an
aerodrome
or area control centre:
(a) in the case of such a unit appointed in respect of an aerodrome
to:
(i) give information by means of radio signals to aircraft flying in
or intending to fly within the aerodrome traffic zone of that
aerodrome; and
(ii) grant or refuse permission, pursuant to Rule 35 or 36(2) of the Rules of
the Air;
(b) in the case of such a unit appointed in respect of an area control
centre, to give information by means of radio signals to
aircraft;
and
"flight information service", "aerodrome flight information
service" and "aerodrome flight information
service unit" shall
be construed accordingly;
"Flight level" means one of a series of
levels of equal atmospheric pressure, separated by notified intervals and
each expressed as the number of hundreds of feet which would be indicated at
that level on a pressure altimeter calibrated in
accordance with the
International Standard Atmosphere and set to 1013.2 hectopascals;
"Flight plan" means such information as
may be notified in respect of an air traffic control service unit being
information
provided or to be provided to that unit, relative to an intended
flight or portion of a flight of an aircraft;
"Flight recording system" means a system
comprising either a flight data recorder or a cockpit voice recorder or both;
"Flight simulator" means apparatus by
means of which flight conditions in an aircraft are simulated on the ground;
"Flight visibility" means the visibility
forward from the flight deck of an aircraft in flight;
"Flying display" means any flying activity
deliberately performed for the purpose of providing an exhibition or
entertainment
at an advertised event open to the public;
"Free balloon" means a balloon which when
in flight is not attached by any form of restraining device to the surface;
"Free controlled flight" means flight
during which a balloon is not attached to the surface by any form of
restraining
device (other than a tether not exceeding five metres in length
which may be used as part of the take-off procedure) and during
which the
height of the balloon is controllable by means of a device attached to the
balloon and operated by the commander
of the balloon or by remote control;
"General lighthouse authority" has the
same meaning as in section 193 of the Merchant Shipping Act 1995[15];
"Government aerodrome" means any aerodrome
in the Territory which is under the control of the Governor or is in the
occupation of any Department of the Government of the Territory or of the
Government of the United Kingdom, or of Her Majesty's
naval, military or air forces,
or of any visiting force;
"Governor" means the officer for the time
being administering the Government of the Territory, and includes, in
relation
to any purpose of this Order, other than the purposes of making
rules or regulations under this Order or of making or revoking
a designation
under article 111 of this Order:
(a) any person appointed by the Governor as Director of Civil Aviation
in the Territory, being the person responsible under the
law of the Territory
on behalf of the Governor for the administration of this Order;
(b) any person who, or the holder for the time being of any office which, is
designated for the time being for that purpose
by the Governor with the
approval of the Secretary of State;
"Hire-purchase agreement" has the same meaning
as in section 189 of the Consumer Credit Act 1974[16];
"Instrument Flight Rules" means Instrument
Flight Rules specified in the Rules of the Air;
"Instrument Meteorological Conditions"
means weather precluding flight in compliance with the Visual Flight Rules;
"International headquarters" means an
international headquarters designated by Order in Council under section 1 of
the International Headquarters and Defence Organisations Act 1964[17],
as extended to the Territory;
"To land" in relation to aircraft includes
alighting on the water;
"Legal personal representative" means the
person so constituted executor, administrator, or other representative, of
a
deceased person;
"Licence" includes any certificate of
competency or certificate of validity issued with the licence or required to
be held in connection with the licence by the law of the country in which the
licence is granted;
"Licence for public use" has the meaning
assigned to it by article 103(3) of this Order;
"Licensed aerodrome" means an aerodrome
licensed under this Order;
"Lifejacket" includes any device designed
to support a person individually in or on the water;
"Log book" in the case of an aircraft log
book, engine log book or variable pitch propeller log book, or personal
flying log book, includes a record kept either in a book, or by any other
means approved by the Governor in the particular case;
"Manoeuvring area" means the part of an
aerodrome provided for the take-off and landing of aircraft and for the
movement
of aircraft on the surface, excluding the apron and any part of the
aerodrome provided for the maintenance of aircraft;
"Maximum total weight authorised" in
relation to an aircraft means the maximum total weight of the aircraft and
its
contents at which the aircraft may take off anywhere in the world, in the
most favourable circumstances in accordance with the
certificate of
airworthiness in force in respect of the aircraft;
"Medical attendant" means a person carried
on a flight for the purpose of attending to any person in the aircraft in
need of medical attention, or to be available to attend to such a person;
"Microlight aeroplane" means an aeroplane
having a maximum total weight authorised not exceeding 390 kg, a wing loading
at the maximum total weight authorised not exceeding 25 kg per square metre,
a maximum fuel capacity not exceeding 50 litres
and which has been designed
to carry not more than two persons;
"Military aircraft" means the naval,
military or air force aircraft of any country and:
(a) any aircraft being constructed for the naval, military or air
force of any country under a contract entered into by the Secretary
of State;
and
(b) any aircraft in respect of which there is in force a certificate issued
by the Secretary of State that the aircraft is
to be treated for the purposes
of this Order as a military aircraft;
"Minimum descent height" in relation to
the operation of an aircraft at an aerodrome means the height in a
non-precision
approach below which descent may not be made without the
required visual reference;
"Nautical mile" means the International
Nautical Mile, that is to say, a distance of 1,852 metres;
"Night" means the time from half an hour
after sunset until half an hour before sunrise (both times inclusive), sunset
and sunrise being determined at surface level;
"Non-precision approach" means an
instrument approach using non-visual aids for guidance in azimuth or
elevation but
which is not a precision approach;
"North Atlantic Minimum Navigation Performance
Specification airspace" means the airspace specified as such in
regulation
19(3) in Schedule 14 to this Order;
"Notified" means shown in any of the
following publications for the time being in force and issued in the
Territory
whether before or after the coming into operation of this Order,
that is to say, "Notams (Notices to Airmen)", "Aeronautical
Information Publications (AIP)", or such other official publications so
issued for the purpose of enabling any of the
provisions of this Order to be
complied with;
"Obstacle limitation surfaces" has the
same meaning as in "CAP 168 Licensing of aerodromes"[18];
"Operator" has the meaning assigned to it
by paragraph (5);
"Parascending parachute" means a parachute
which is towed by cable in such a manner as to cause it to ascend;
"Passenger" means a person other than a member
of the crew;
"Period of duty" means the period between
the commencement and end of a shift during which an air traffic controller
performs, or could be called upon to perform, any of the functions specified
in respect of a rating included in his licence;
"Pilot in command" in relation to an
aircraft means a person who for the time being is in charge of the piloting
of
the aircraft without being under the direction of any other pilot in the
aircraft;
"Precision approach" means an instrument
approach using Instrument Landing System, Microwave Landing System or
Precision
Approach Radar for guidance in both azimuth and elevation;
"Prescribed" means prescribed by
regulations made by the Governor under this Order, and the expression
"prescribe"
shall be construed accordingly;
"Pressurised aircraft" means an aircraft
provided with means of maintaining in any compartment a pressure greater than
that of the surrounding atmosphere;
"Private flight" means a flight which is
neither for the purpose of aerial work nor public transport;
"Public transport" has the meaning
assigned to it by article 131 of this Order;
"Public transport aircraft" means an
aircraft flying, or intended by the operator of the aircraft to fly, for the
purpose of public transport;
"Record" includes, in addition to a record
in writing-
(a) any disc, tape, sound-track or other device in which sounds or
signals are embodied so as to be capable (with or without the
aid of some
other instrument) of being reproduced therefrom;
(b) any film, tape or other device in which visual images are embodied so as
to be capable (as aforesaid) of being reproduced
therefrom; and
(c) any photograph;
and any
reference to a copy of a record includes, in the case of a record falling
within paragraph (a) only of this definition,
a transcript of the sounds or
signals embodied therein, in the case of a record falling within paragraph
(b) only of this definition,
a still reproduction of the images embodied
therein, and in the case of a record falling within both those paragraphs,
such
a transcript together with such a still reproduction;
"Reduced vertical separation minimum
airspace", means any airspace between flight level 290 and flight level
410 inclusive
designated by the relevant competent authority as being
airspace within which a vertical separation minimum of 1,000 ft or 300
metres
shall be applied;
"Released flight" means flight by an
uncontrollable balloon during which it is not attached to the surface by any
form of restraining device;
"Replacement" in relation to any part of
an aircraft or its equipment includes the removal and replacement of that
part whether or not by the same part, and whether or not any work is done on
it; but does not include the removal and replacement
of a part which is
designated to be removable solely for the purpose of enabling another part to
be inspected, repaired, removed
or replaced or cargo to be loaded;
"Rules of the Air" means the rules in
Schedule 13 to this Order and any supplementary rules made by the Governor
under
article 84(1);
"Runway visual range" in relation to a
runway means the distance in the direction of take-off or landing over which
the runway lights or surface markings may be seen from the touchdown zone as
calculated by either human observation or instruments
in the vicinity of the
touchdown zone or where this is not reasonably practicable in the vicinity of
the mid-point of the runway;
and the distance, if any, communicated to the
commander of an aircraft by or on behalf of the person in charge of the
aerodrome
as being the runway visual range shall be taken to be the runway
visual range for the time being;
"Scheduled journey" means one of a series
of journeys which are undertaken between the same two places and which
together
amount to a systematic service;
"Seaplane" includes a flying boat and any
other aircraft designed to manoeuvre on water;
"Sector" means part of the airspace
controlled from an area control centre or other place;
"Small aircraft" means any unmanned
aircraft, other than a balloon or a kite, weighing not more than 20 kg
without
its fuel but including any articles or equipment installed in or
attached to the aircraft at the commencement of its flight;
"Small balloon" means a balloon not
exceeding two metres in any linear dimension at any stage of its flight,
including
any basket or other equipment attached to the balloon;
"Special VFR flight" means a flight which
is a special VFR flight for the purposes of the Rules of the Air;
"State of the operator" means the State in
which the operator of an aircraft has his principal place of business or,
if
he has no such place of business, his permanent residence, in circumstances
where:
(a) that aircraft is registered in another Contracting State;
(b) the operator is operating that aircraft pursuant to an agreement for its
lease, charter or interchange or any similar arrangement;
(c) the State in which the aircraft is registered has, by agreement with the
State in which the operator of the aircraft has
his principal place of
business or, if he has no such place of business, his permanent residence,
agreed to transfer to it
its functions and duties as State of registry in
respect of that aircraft in relation to, in the case of article 8(1),
airworthiness,
in the case of article 15(1), aircraft radio equipment, in the
case of article 21(3), flight crew licensing or in the case of
article 46(1),
radio licensing; and
(d) the agreement has been registered with the Council of the International
Civil Aviation Organisation or the existence and
scope of the agreement have
been directly communicated to the Governor.
"Supreme Court" means the highest court
exercising original jurisdiction in respect of the Territory;
"The Territory" has the meaning assigned
to it by article 128 of this Order and includes the dependencies of the
Territory
and the adjacent territorial waters;
"Territory reduced vertical separation minimum
airspace" means Territory airspace which has been notified as reduced
vertical separation minimum airspace for the purposes of article 48;
"Tethered flight" means flight by a
controllable balloon throughout which it is flown within limits imposed by a
restraining
device which attaches the balloon to the surface;
"Uncontrollable balloon" means a balloon,
not being a small balloon, which is not capable of free controlled flight;
"Valuable consideration" means any right,
interest, profit or benefit, forbearance, detriment, loss or responsibility
accruing, given, suffered or undertaken pursuant to an agreement, which is of
more than a nominal nature;
"Visual Flight Rules" means Visual Flight
Rules prescribed by the Rules of the Air;
"Visual Meteorological Conditions" means
weather permitting flight in accordance with the Visual Flight Rules.
(2)
In this Order references to sums expressed in terms of sterling shall be
construed as references
to the equivalent sums in the currency of the
Territory calculated at such rate of exchange as may be prescribed or as the
Governor may by order direct.
(3)
(a) In its application to any Territory which is mentioned in Schedule
18 to this Order but is not mentioned in the First Schedule
to the Visiting
Forces Act (Application to Colonies) Order 1954[19],
as amended from time to time, this Order shall have effect as if -
(i) the words "or of any visiting force" were omitted from
article 70(8)(a);
(ii) the words "or a visiting force" were omitted from article
94(5);
(iii) the whole of paragraph (2) were omitted from article 125;
(iv) the words "or as a member of a visiting force" were omitted
from article 125(4); and
(v) in paragraph (1) the words "or of any visiting force" were
omitted from the definition of "Government aerodrome".
(b) In relation to any Territory which is mentioned in Schedule 18 to
this Order and is also mentioned in the First Schedule to
the Visiting Forces
Act (Application to Colonies) Order 1954, as amended from time to time, the
expression "visiting force"
in this Order means any such body,
contingent or detachment of the forces of any country as is a visiting force
for the purposes
of any of the provisions of the Visiting Forces Act 1952[20],
which extend to that Territory, in respect of that country, by virtue of any
Order in Council made under section 1(2) or
under section 15 of that Act.
(4)
An aircraft shall be deemed to be in flight:
(a) in the case of a piloted flying machine, from the moment when,
after the embarkation of its crew for the purpose of taking
off, it first
moves under its own power until the moment when it next comes to rest after
landing;
(b) in the case of a pilotless flying machine, or a glider, from the moment
when it first moves for the purpose of taking off
until the moment when it
next comes to rest after landing;
(c) in the case of an airship, from the moment when it first becomes detached
from the surface until the moment when it next
becomes attached thereto or
comes to rest thereon;
(d) in the case of a free balloon, from the moment when the balloon,
including the canopy and basket, becomes separated from
the surface until the
moment it next comes to rest thereon; and
(e) in the case of a captive balloon, from the moment when the balloon,
including the canopy and basket, becomes separated
from the surface, apart
from a restraining device attaching it to the surface, until the moment when
it next comes to rest
thereon;
and the
expressions a "flight" and "to fly" shall be construed
accordingly.
(5)
(a) Subject to sub-paragraph (b), references in this Order to the
operator of an aircraft are, for the purposes of the application
of any
provision of this Order in relation to any particular aircraft, references to
the person who at the relevant time has
the management of that aircraft, and
cognate expressions shall be construed accordingly.
(b) For the purposes of the application of any provision in Part III of this
Order, when by virtue of any charter or other
agreement for the hire or loan
of an aircraft a person other than an air transport undertaking or an aerial
work undertaking
has the management of that aircraft for a period not
exceeding 14 days, the foregoing provisions of this paragraph shall have
effect as if that agreement had not been entered into.
(6)
The expressions appearing in the "General classification of
aircraft" set forth in Part
A of Schedule 2 to this Order shall have the
meanings thereby assigned to them.
(7) A power to make regulations under this Order
shall include the power to make different provisions
with respect to
different classes of aircraft, aerodromes, persons or property and with
respect to different circumstances
and with respect to different parts of the
Territory and to make such incidental and supplementary provisions as are
necessary
or expedient for carrying out the purposes of the Order.
(8) The Interpretation Act 1978[21]
applies for the purpose of the interpretation of this Order and otherwise in
relation thereto as it applies for the purpose
of the interpretation of, and
in relation to, an Act of Parliament of the United Kingdom, and as if this
Order were such an
Act of Parliament.
(9)
(a) Any power conferred by this Order to issue, make, serve or grant
any instrument shall be construed as including a power exercisable,
in the
like manner and subject to the like conditions, if any, to vary, revoke,
cancel or otherwise terminate the instrument.
(b) In this paragraph "instrument" includes any regulations,
direction, instruction, rule or other requirement, any
notice and any
certificate, licence, approval, permission, exemption, authorisation, log
book record or other document.
Public
transport and aerial work
131 - (1)
(a) Subject to the provisions of
this article, aerial work means any purpose (other than public transport) for
which an aircraft
is flown if valuable consideration is given or promised in
respect of the flight or the purpose of the flight.
(b) If the only such valuable consideration consists of remuneration for the
services of the pilot the flight shall be deemed
to be a private flight for
the purposes of Part III of this Order.
(2) Subject to the
provisions of this article, an aircraft in flight shall for the purposes of
this
Order be deemed to fly for the purposes of public transport:
(a) if valuable consideration is
given or promised for the carriage of passengers or cargo in the aircraft on
that flight;
(b) if any passengers or cargo are carried gratuitously in the aircraft on
that flight by an air transport undertaking, not
being persons in the
employment of the undertaking (including, in the case of a body corporate,
its directors) and persons
with the authority of the Governor either making
any inspection or witnessing any training, practice or test for the purposes
of this Order, or cargo intended to be used by any such passengers as
aforesaid, or by the undertaking; or
(c) for the purposes of Part III of this Order (other than articles 14(2) and
15(2) thereof), if valuable consideration is
given or promised for the
primary purpose of conferring on a particular person the right to fly the
aircraft on that flight
(not being a single-seat aircraft of which the
maximum total weight authorised does not exceed 910 kg) otherwise than under
a hire-purchase or conditional sale agreement.
(3)
(a) Notwithstanding that an
aircraft may be flying for the purpose of public transport by reason of
paragraph (2)(c), it shall
not be deemed to be flying for the purpose of the
public transport of passengers unless valuable consideration is given for the
carriage of those passengers.
(b) A glider shall not be deemed to fly for the purpose of public transport
for the purposes of Part III of this Order by virtue
of paragraph (2)(c) if
the valuable consideration given or promised for the primary purpose of
conferring on a particular person
the right to fly the glider on that flight
is given or promised by a member of a flying club and the glider is owned or operated
by that flying club.
(c) Notwithstanding the giving or promising of valuable consideration
specified in sub-paragraph (2)(c) in respect of the flight
or the purpose of
the flight it shall:
(i) subject to sub-paragraph (ii),
for all purposes other than Part III of this Order; and
(ii) for the purposes of articles 14(2) and 15(2) of this Order;
be deemed to be a private flight.
(4) Where under a
transaction effected by or on behalf of a member of an association of persons
on the
one hand and the association of persons or any member thereof on the
other hand, a person is carried in, or is given the right
to fly, an aircraft
in such circumstances that valuable consideration would be given or promised
if the transaction were effected
otherwise than aforesaid, valuable
consideration shall, for the purposes of this Order, be deemed to have been
given or promised,
notwithstanding any rule of law as to such transactions.
(5)
(a) For the purposes of paragraph
(2)(a), there shall be disregarded any valuable consideration given or
promised in respect
of a flight or the purpose of a flight by one company to
another company which is:
(i) its holding company;
(ii) its subsidiary; or
(iii) another subsidiary of the same holding company.
(b) For the purposes of this
article "holding company" and "subsidiary" have the
meanings respectively specified
in Section 736 of the Companies Act 1985[22].
(6)
(a) A flight shall, for the purposes of Part IV of this Order, be
deemed to be a private flight if:
(i) the flight is:
(aa) wholly or principally for the purpose of taking part in an
aircraft race, contest or flying display;
(bb) for the purpose of positioning the aircraft for such a flight as is
specified in sub-paragraph (aa) hereof and is made
with the intention of
carrying out such a flight; or
(cc) for the purpose of returning after such a flight as is specified in
sub-paragraph (aa) hereof to a place at which the
aircraft is usually based;
(ii) the only valuable consideration in respect of the flight or the
purpose of the flight other than:
(aa) valuable consideration specified at paragraph (2)(c); or
(bb) in the case of an aircraft owned in accordance with paragraph (10)(a),
valuable consideration which falls within paragraph
(10)(b);
is either:
(cc) that given or promised to the owner or operator of an aircraft
taking part in such a race, contest or flying display and such
valuable
consideration does not exceed the direct costs of the flight and a
contribution to the annual costs of the aircraft
which contribution shall
bear no greater proportion to the total annual costs of the aircraft than the
duration of the flight
bears to the annual flying hours of the aircraft; or
(dd) one or more prizes awarded to the pilot in command of an aircraft taking
part in an aircraft race or contest to a value
which shall not exceed 500 in
respect of any one race or contest except with the permission in writing of
the Governor granted
to the organiser of the race or contest which permission
may be granted subject to such conditions as the Governor thinks fit;
or falls within both sub-paragraphs (cc) and (dd).
(b) Any prize falling within paragraph (6)(a)(ii)(dd) shall be deemed
for the purposes of this Order not to constitute remuneration
for services as
a pilot.
(7)
(a) Subject to paragraph (b), a flight shall be deemed to be a private
flight if the only valuable consideration given or promised
in respect of the
flight or the purpose of the flight other than:
(i) valuable consideration specified at paragraph (2)(c); or
(ii) in the case of an aircraft owned in accordance with paragraph (10)(a),
valuable consideration which falls within paragraph
(10)(b);
is given or promised to a registered charity which is not the operator
of the aircraft and the flight is made with the permission
in writing of the
Governor and in accordance with any conditions therein specified.
(b) If valuable consideration specified at paragraph (2)(c) is given or
promised the provisions of that paragraph shall apply
to the flight.
(8)
(a) Subject to paragraph (b), a flight shall be deemed to be a private
flight if:
(i) the only valuable consideration given or promised in respect of
the flight or the purpose of the flight other than:
(aa) valuable consideration specified at paragraph (2)(c); or
(bb) in the case of an aircraft owned in accordance with paragraph (10)(a),
valuable consideration which falls within paragraph
(10)(b);
is a contribution to the direct costs of the flight otherwise payable
by the pilot in command; and
(ii)
(aa) no more than four persons (including the pilot) are carried on
such a flight;
(bb) the proportion which such contribution bears to the total direct costs
of the flight shall not exceed the proportion which
the number of persons
carried on the flight (excluding the pilot) bears to the number of persons
carried on the flight (including
the pilot);
(cc) no information concerning the flight shall have been published or
advertised prior to the commencement of the flight other
than, in the case of
an aircraft operated by a flying club, advertising wholly within the premises
of such a flying club in
which case all the persons carried on such a flight
who are aged 18 years or over shall be members of that flying club; and
(dd) no person acting as a pilot on such a flight shall be employed as a
pilot by or be a party to a contract for the provision
of services as a pilot
with the operator of the aircraft being flown on the flight.
(b) If valuable consideration specified at paragraph (2)(c) is given
or promised the provisions of that paragraph shall apply to
the flight.
(9)
(a) Subject to paragraph (b), a flight shall be deemed to be a private
flight if the only valuable consideration given or promised
in respect of the
flight or the purpose of the flight other than:
(i) valuable consideration specified at paragraph (2)(c); or
(ii) in the case of an aircraft owned in accordance with paragraph (10)(a),
valuable consideration which falls within paragraph
(10)(b);
is the payment of the whole or part of the direct costs otherwise
payable by the pilot in command by or on behalf of the employer
of the pilot
in command, or by or on behalf of a body corporate of which the pilot in
command is a director, provided that
neither the pilot in command nor any
other person who is carried is legally obliged, whether under a contract or
otherwise,
to be carried.
(b) If valuable consideration specified at paragraph (2)(c) is given or
promised the provisions of that paragraph shall apply
to the flight.
(10)
A flight shall be deemed to be a private flight if:
(a) the aircraft is owned:
(i) jointly by persons (each of whom is a natural person) who each
hold not less than a 5 per cent beneficial share and:
(aa) the aircraft is registered in the names of all the joint owners;
or
(bb) the aircraft is registered in the name or names of one or more of the
joint owners as trustee or trustees for all the
joint owners, and written
notice has been given to the Governor of the names of all the persons
beneficially entitled to share
in the aircraft; or
(ii) by a company in the name of which the aircraft is registered and
the registered shareholders of which (each of whom is a natural
person) each
hold not less than 5 per cent of the shares in that company; and
(b) the only valuable consideration given or promised in respect of
the flight or the purpose of the flight is either:
(i) in respect of and is no greater than the direct costs of the
flight and is given, or promised by one or more of the joint owners
of the
aircraft or registered shareholders of the company which owns the aircraft;
or
(ii) in respect of the annual costs and given by one or more of such joint
owners or shareholders (as aforesaid):
or falls within both sub-paragraphs (i) and (ii).
(11)
A flight in respect of which valuable consideration has been given or
promised for the carriage
of passengers and which is for the purpose of:
(a) the dropping of persons by parachute and which is made under and
in accordance with the terms of a written permission granted
by the Governor
pursuant to article 57 of this Order;
(b) positioning the aircraft for such a flight as is specified in
sub-paragraph (a) and which is made with the intention of
carrying out such a
flight and on which no person is carried who it is not intended shall be
carried on such a flight and who
may be carried on such a flight in
accordance with the terms of a written permission granted by the Governor
pursuant to article
57 of this Order; or
(c) returning after such a flight as is specified in sub-paragraph (a) hereof
to the place at which the persons carried on
such a flight are usually based
and on which flight no persons are carried other than persons carried on the
flight specified
in sub-paragraph (a);
shall be deemed
to be for the purposes of aerial work.
Saving
132. - (1) Subject to
the provision of articles 103 and 107 of this Order, nothing in this Order or
any regulations made
thereunder shall confer any right to land in any place
as against the owner of the land or other persons interested therein.
(2) Nothing in this Order shall oblige the Governor
to accept an application from the holder of any
current certificate, licence,
approval, permission, exemption or other document, being an application for
the renewal of that
document, or for the granting of another document in
continuation of or in substitution for the current document, if the
application
is made more than 60 days before the current document is due to expire.
Exceptions for certain classes of aircraft
133. The provisions of this
Order other than articles 58, 64, 85(1), 86, 87, 118(1)(b), 130(1), (4) and
(7) shall not apply to or
in relation to:
(a) any small balloon;
(b) any kite weighing not more than 2 kg;
(c) any small aircraft; or
(d) any parachute, including a parascending parachute.
Approval for persons to furnish reports
134. In
relation to any of his functions pursuant to any of the provisions of this
Order the Governor may, either absolutely or
subject to such conditions as he
thinks fit, approve a person as qualified to furnish reports to him and may
accept such reports.
Publication of requirements
135.
- (1) Subject to paragraph (2), where any provision of this Order
provides for the Governor to grant a certificate,
licence or other document
if he is satisfied as to matters specified in the provision, he shall publish
the requirements which
must be met by an applicant for such a certificate,
licence or other document in order to so satisfy him.
(2) Nothing in this article shall require the
Governor to publish requirements in respect of a licence,
certificate or
other document if he does not exercise his powers to grant the licence,
certificate or document in question.
A. K. Galloway
Clerk of the Privy Council
SCHEDULE 1
Article
2
ORDERS REVOKED
|
|
References
|
|
The Air Navigation (Overseas
Territories) Order 1989
|
S.I. 1989/2395
|
|
The Air Navigation (Overseas
Territories) (Amendment) Order 1991
|
S.I. 1991/189
|
|
The Air Navigation (Overseas
Territories) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 1991
|
S.I. 1991/1697
|
|
The Air Navigation (Overseas
Territories) (Amendment) Order 1992
|
S.I. 1992/3198
|
|
The Air Navigation (Overseas
Territories) (Amendment) Order 1995
|
S.I. 1995/2701
|
|
The Air Navigation (Overseas
Territories) (Amendment) Order 1997
|
S.I. 1997/1746
|
SCHEDULE 2
Articles
4(6), 29(3) and 130(6)
PART A
Table of general classification of aircraft
|
Col. 1
|
Col. 2
|
Col. 3
|
Col. 4
|
|
|
Aircraft
|
Lighter than
air aircraft
|
Non-power
driven
|
Free
Balloon
Captive Balloon
|
|
|
Aircraft
|
Lighter than
air aircraft
|
Power driven
|
Airship
|
|
|
Aircraft
|
Heavier than
air aircraft
|
Non-power
driven
|
Glider
Kite
|
|
|
Aircraft
|
Heavier than
air aircraft
|
Power driven
(flying machines)
|
Aeroplane
(Landplane)
Aeroplane (Seaplane)
Aeroplane (Amphibian)
Aeroplane (Self-launching Motor Glider)
Powered Lift (Tilt Rotor)
|
|
|
Aircraft
|
Heavier than
air aircraft
|
Power driven
(flying machines)
|
Rotorcraft
|
Helicopter
Gyroplane
|
PART B
Article 5(2)
Nationality and registration marks of aircraft
registered in the Territory
1. General
(1) The nationality mark of the aircraft shall be a
group of two capital letters in Roman character
and the registration mark
shall be a group of four capital letters in Roman character assigned by the
Governor on the registration
of the aircraft. The letters shall be without
ornamentation and a hyphen shall be placed between the nationality mark and
the
registration mark.
(2) The nationality and registration marks shall be
displayed to the best advantage, taking into consideration
the constructional
features of the aircraft and shall always be kept clean and visible.
(3) The letters constituting each group of marks
shall be of equal height and they, and the hyphen,
shall be of the same
single colour which shall clearly contrast with the background on which they
appear.
(4) The nationality and registration marks shall also
be inscribed on a fire-proof metal plate affixed
in a prominent position:
(a) in the case of a microlight
aeroplane, either in accordance with sub-paragraph (c) or on the wing;
(b) in the case of a balloon, on the basket or envelope; or
(c) in the case of any other aircraft on the fuselage or car as the case may
be.
(5) The nationality and
registration marks shall be painted on the aircraft or shall be affixed
thereto
by any other means ensuring a similar degree of permanence in the
manner specified in paragraphs 2 and 3 of this Part.
2. Position and size of marks
(1) The position and size of marks on heavier than
air aircraft (excluding kites) shall be as follows:
(a) on the horizontal surfaces of
the wings:
(i) on aircraft having a fixed
wing surface, the marks shall appear on the lower surface of the wing
structure and shall be
on the port wing unless they extend across the whole
surface of both wings. So far as is possible the marks shall be located
equidistant from the leading and trailing edges of the wings. The tops of the
letters shall be towards the leading edge of the
wing;
(ii) the height of the letters shall be:
(aa) subject to sub-paragraph
(bb), at least 50 centimetres,
(bb) if the wings are not large enough for the marks to be 50 centimetres in
height, marks of the greatest height practicable
in the circumstances;
(b) on the fuselage (or equivalent
structure) and vertical tail surfaces:
(i) the marks shall also appear
either:
(aa) on each side of the fuselage
(or equivalent structure), and shall, in the case of fixed wing aircraft, be
located between
the wings and the horizontal tail surface; or
(bb) on the vertical tail surfaces;
(ii) when located on a single
vertical tail surface, the marks shall appear on both sides. When located on
multi-vertical tail
surfaces, the marks shall appear on the outboard sides of
the outer surfaces. Subject to sub-paragraphs (iv) and (v), the height
of the
letters constituting each group of marks shall be at least 30 centimetres;
(iii) if one of the surfaces authorised for displaying the required marks is
large enough for those marks to be 30 centimetres
in height (whilst complying
with sub-paragraph (v)) and the other is not, marks of 30 centimetres in
height shall be placed
on the largest authorised surface;
(iv) if neither authorised surface is large enough for marks of 30 centimetres
in height (whilst complying with sub-paragraph
(v)), marks of the greatest
height practicable in the circumstances shall be displayed on the larger of
the two authorised
surfaces;
(v) the marks on the vertical tail surfaces shall be such as to leave a
margin of at least five centimetres along each side
of the vertical tail
surface;
(vi) on rotary wing aircraft where owing to the structure of the aircraft the
greatest height practicable for the marks on
the side of the fuselage (or
equivalent structure) is less than 30 centimetres, the marks shall also
appear on the lower surface
of the fuselage as close to the line of symmetry
as is practicable and shall be placed with the tops of the letters towards
the nose. The height of the letters constituting each group of marks shall
be:
(aa) subject to sub-paragraph
(bb), at least 50 centimetres; or
(bb) if the lower surface of the fuselage is not large enough for the marks
to be of 50 centimetres in height, marks of the
greatest height practicable
in the circumstances;
(c) wherever in this paragraph
marks of the greatest height practicable in the circumstances are required,
that height shall
be such as is consistent with compliance with paragraph 3
of this Part.
(2) The position and size of
marks on airships and free balloons shall be as follows:
(a) in the case of airships the
marks shall be placed on each side of the airship. They shall be placed
horizontally either
on the hull near the maximum cross-section of the airship
or on the lower vertical stabiliser;
(b) in the case of free balloons, the marks shall be in two places on
diametrically opposite sides of the balloon;
(c) in the case of both airships and free balloons the side marks shall be so
placed as to be visible from the sides and from
the ground. The height of the
letters shall be at least 50 centimetres.
3. Width, spacing
and thickness of marks
(1) For the purposes of this paragraph:
(a) "standard letter"
shall mean any letter other than the letters I, M and W;
(b) the width of each standard letter and the length of the hyphen between
the nationality mark and the registration mark shall
be two thirds of the
height of a letter;
(c) the width of the letters M and W shall be neither less than two thirds of
their height nor more than their height; and
(d) the width of the letter I shall be one sixth of the height of the letter.
(2) The thickness of the
lines comprising each letter and hyphen shall be one sixth of the height of
the letters forming the marks.
(3) Each letter and hyphen shall be separated from
the letter or hyphen which it immediately precedes
or follows by a space
equal to either one quarter or one half of the width of a standard letter.
Each such space shall be equal
to every other such space within the marks.
PART C
Article 4(8)
Aircraft dealer's certificate - conditions
(1) The operator of the aircraft shall be the
registered owner of the aircraft, who shall be the holder
of an aircraft
dealer's certificate granted under this Order.
(2) The aircraft shall fly only for the purpose of:
(a) testing the aircraft;
(b) demonstrating the aircraft with a view to the sale of that aircraft or of
other similar aircraft;
(c) proceeding to or from a place at which the aircraft is to be tested or
demonstrated as aforesaid, or overhauled, repaired
or modified;
(d) delivering the aircraft to a person who has agreed to buy, lease or sell
it; or
(e) proceeding to or from a place for the purpose of storage.
(3) Without prejudice to
article 43 of this Order the operator of the aircraft shall satisfy himself
before the aircraft takes off that the aircraft is in every way fit for the
intended flight.
(4) The aircraft shall fly only within the Territory.
SCHEDULE 3
Articles
3(2), 5(4), 8(2) and 55(7)
PART A
A and B Conditions
The A and B Conditions referred to in Articles 3(2), 5(4), 8(2) and 55(7) of
this Order are as follows:
A Conditions
(1) An aircraft registered in the Territory may fly
for a purpose set out in paragraph (2) subject
to the conditions contained in
paragraphs (3) to (8) when either:
(a) it does not have a certificate
of airworthiness duly issued or rendered valid under the law of the
Territory; or
(b) the certificate of airworthiness or certificate of validation issued in
respect of the aircraft has ceased to be in force
by virtue of any of the
matters specified in Article 9(7) of this Order.
(2)
(a) In the case of an aircraft
falling within paragraph (1)(a) the aircraft shall fly only for the purpose
of enabling it to:
(i) qualify for the issue or
renewal of a certificate of airworthiness or the validation thereof after an
application has been
made for such issue, renewal or validation as the case
may be, or carry out a functional check of a previously approved modification
of the aircraft (and for the purpose of this Schedule "a previously
approved modification" shall mean a modification
which has previously
been approved by the Governor in respect of that aircraft or another aircraft
of the same type);
(ii) proceed to or from a place at which any inspection, repair,
modification, maintenance, approval, test or weighing of,
or the installation
of equipment in, the aircraft is to take place or has taken place for a
purpose referred to in sub-paragraph
(a), after any relevant application has
been made, or at which the installation of furnishings in, or the painting
of, the
aircraft is to be undertaken; or
(iii) proceed to or from a place at which the aircraft is to be or has been
stored.
(b) In the case of an aircraft
falling within paragraph (1)(b), it shall fly only for the purpose of
enabling it to:
(i) proceed to a place at which
any inspection or maintenance required by virtue of Article 9(7)(b)(ii) of
this Order is to
take place; or
(ii) proceed to a place at which any inspection, maintenance or modification
required by virtue of Article 9(7)(b)(i) or (c)
of this Order is to take
place and in respect of which flight the Governor has given permission in
writing; or
(iii) carry out a functional check, test or in-flight adjustment in
connection with the carrying out in a manner approved by
the Governor of any
overhaul, repair, previously approved modification, inspection or maintenance
required by virtue of Article
9(7) of this Order.
(3) The aircraft shall be:
(a) an aircraft in respect of
which a certificate of airworthiness or validation has previously been in
force under this Order
and has not subsequently had any modification which
requires approval unless that modification is a previously approved
modification
which has been granted such an approval under the law of the
country in which the aircraft was registered at that time; or
(b) an aircraft identical in design (including any modifications) with an
aircraft in respect of which such a certificate is
or has been in force.
(4) The aircraft and its
engines shall be certified as fit for flight by the holder of an aircraft
maintenance
engineer's licence granted under this Order, being a licence
which entitles him to issue that certificate or by a person approved
by the
Governor for the purpose of issuing certificates under this condition, and in
accordance with that approval.
(5) The aircraft shall carry the minimum flight crew
specified in any certificate of airworthiness
or validation which has
previously been in force under the Order in respect of the aircraft, or is or
has previously been in
force in respect of any other aircraft of identical
design.
(6) The aircraft shall not carry any persons or cargo
except persons performing duties in the aircraft
in connection with the
flight or persons who are carried in the aircraft to perform duties in
connection with a purpose referred
to in paragraph (2).
(7) The aircraft shall not fly over any congested
area of a city, town or settlement except to the
extent that it is necessary
to do so in order to take off or land.
(8) Without prejudice to article 20(2) of this Order,
the aircraft shall carry such flight crew as
may be necessary to ensure the
safety of the aircraft.
B Conditions
(1) An aircraft may fly for a purpose set out in
paragraph (2) subject to the conditions set out in
paragraphs (3) to (8)
whether or not it is registered in accordance with article 3(1) of this Order
and when there is not in
force in respect thereof:
(a) in the case of an aircraft
which is so registered, a certificate of airworthiness duly issued or
rendered valid under the
law of the country in which the aircraft is
registered; or
(b) in the case of an aircraft which is not so registered, either a
certificate of airworthiness duly issued or rendered valid
under the law of
the Territory or a permit to fly issued by the Governor in respect of that
aircraft.
(2) The aircraft shall fly
only for the purpose of:
(a) experimenting with or testing,
the aircraft (including any engines installed thereon) or any equipment
installed or carried
in the aircraft;
(b) enabling it to qualify for the issue of a certificate of airworthiness or
the validation thereof or the approval of a modification
of the aircraft or
the issue of a permit to fly;
(c) demonstrating and displaying the aircraft, any engines installed thereon
or any equipment installed or carried in the aircraft
with a view to the sale
thereof or of other similar aircraft, engines or equipment;
(d) demonstrating and displaying the aircraft to employees of the operator;
(e) the giving of flying training to or the testing of flight crew employed
by the operator or the training or testing of other
persons employed by the
operator and who are carried or are intended to be carried pursuant to
paragraph (7)(a); or
(f) proceeding to or from a place at which any experiment, inspection,
repair, modification, maintenance, approval, test or
weighing of the
aircraft, the installation of equipment in the aircraft, demonstration,
display or training is to take place
for a purpose referred to in
sub-paragraphs (a), (b), (c), (d) or (e) or at which installation of
furnishings in, or the painting
of, the aircraft is to be undertaken.
(3) The flight shall be
operated by a person approved by the Governor for the purposes of these
Conditions
and subject to any additional conditions which may be specified in
such an approval.
(4) If not registered in the Territory the aircraft
shall be marked in a manner approved by the Governor
for the purposes of
these Conditions, and articles 15, 17, 43, 46, 76 and 78 of this Order shall
be complied with in relation
to the aircraft as if it was registered in the
Territory.
(5) Without prejudice to article 20(2) of this Order,
the aircraft shall carry such flight crew as
may be necessary to ensure the
safety of the aircraft.
(6) No person shall act as pilot in command of the
aircraft except a person approved for the purpose
by the Governor.
(7) The aircraft shall not carry any cargo, or any
persons other than the flight crew except the following:
(a) persons employed by the
operator who during the flight carry out duties or are tested or receive
training in connection
with a purpose specified in paragraph (2);
(b) persons acting on behalf of the manufacturers of component parts of the
aircraft (including its engines) or of equipment
installed in or carried in
the aircraft for carrying out during the flight duties in connection with a
purpose so specified;
(c) persons approved by the Governor under article 134 of this Order as
qualified to furnish reports for the purposes of article
9 of this Order;
(d) persons other than those carried under the preceding provisions of this
sub-paragraph who are carried in the aircraft in
order to carry out a
technical evaluation of the aircraft or its operation;
(e) cargo which comprises equipment carried in connection with a purpose
specified in paragraph (2)(f); or
(f) persons employed by the operator or persons acting on behalf of the
manufacturers of component parts of the aircraft (including
its engines) or
of equipment installed in or carried in the aircraft in connection with a
purpose specified in paragraph (2)(f)
which persons have duties in connection
with that purpose.
(8) The aircraft shall not
fly, except in accordance with procedures which have been approved by the
Governor in relation to that flight, over any congested area of a city, town
or settlement.
PART B
Article 9
|
Categories of
certificate of airworthiness
|
Purpose for which
the aircraft may fly
|
|
Transport
Category (Passenger)
|
Any purpose
|
|
Transport
Category (Cargo)
|
Any purpose
other than the public transport of passengers
|
|
Aerial Work
Category
|
Any purpose
other than public transport
|
|
Private
Category
|
Any purpose
other than public transport or aerial work
|
|
Special
Category
|
Any purpose,
other than public transport, specified in the certificate of airworthiness
but not including the carriage of
passengers unless expressly permitted.
|
SCHEDULE 4
Articles
12(6), 14(2) and (8),31(5), 53(1), (3) and (4)
Aircraft equipment
(1)
(a) Every aircraft of a
description specified in the first column of the Table set forth in paragraph
4 of this Schedule and
which is registered in the Territory shall be
provided, when flying in the circumstances specified in the second column of
the said Table, with adequate equipment, and for the purpose of this
paragraph the expression "adequate equipment" shall
mean, subject
to sub-paragraph (b), the scales of equipment respectively indicated in that
Table.
(b) If the aircraft is flying in a combination of such circumstances, the
scales of equipment shall not on that account be
required to be duplicated.
(2) The equipment carried in
an aircraft as being necessary for the airworthiness of the aircraft shall
be
taken into account in determining whether this Schedule is complied with in
respect of that aircraft.
(3) The following items of equipment shall not be
required to be of a type approved by the Governor:
(a) The
equipment referred to in Scale A (ii).
(b) First aid equipment and handbook, referred to in Scale A.
(c) Time-pieces, referred to in Scale F.
(d) Torches, referred to in Scales G, H, K and Z.
(e) Whistles, referred to in Scale H.
(f) Sea anchors, referred to in Scales J and K.
(g) Rocket signals, referred to in Scale J.
(h) Equipment for mooring, anchoring or manoeuvring aircraft on the water,
referred to in Scale J.
(i) Paddles, referred to in Scale K.
(j) Food and water, referred to in Scales K, U and V.
(k) First aid equipment, referred to in Scales K, U and V.
(l) Stoves, cooking utensils, snow shovels, ice saws, sleeping bags and
Arctic suits, referred to in Scale V.
(m) Megaphones, referred to in Scale Y.
4. Table
|
Description
of aircraft
|
Circumstances
of flight
|
Scale of
equipment required
|
|
(1)
Gliders
|
(a)
flying for purposes other than public transport or aerial work; and when
flying by night
|
A (ii)
|
|
|
(b)
flying for the purpose of public transport or aerial work; and
|
A, B (i) and (ii), D and F (i)
|
|
|
(i)
when flying by night
|
C and G
|
|
|
(ii)
when carrying out aerobatic manoeuvres
|
B (iii)
|
|
(2)
Aeroplanes
|
(a)
flying for purposes other than public transport; and
|
A (i) and (ii) and B (i)
|
|
|
(i)
when flying by night
|
C and D
|
|
|
(ii)
when flying under Instrument Flight Rules:
|
|
|
|
(aa)
outside controlled airspace
|
D
|
|
|
(bb)
within Class A, B or C airspace
|
E with E (iv) duplicated and F
|
|
|
(cc)
within Class D and E airspace
|
E and F
|
|
|
(iii)
when carrying out aerobatic manoeuvres
|
B (iii)
|
|
|
(b)
flying for the purpose of public transport; and
|
A, B (i) and (ii), D and F (i)
|
|
|
(i)
when flying under Instrument Flight Rules except flights outside controlled
airspace in the case of aeroplanes having
a maximum total weight authorised
not exceeding 1150 kg
|
E with E (iv) duplicated and F
|
|
|
(ii)
when flying by night; and in the case of aeroplanes of which the maximum
total weight authorised exceeds 1150 kg
|
C and G, E with E (iv)
duplicated and F
|
|
|
(iii)
when flying over water beyond gliding distance from land
|
H
|
|
|
(iv)
on all flights on which in the event of any emergency occurring during the
take-off or during the landing at the intended
destination or any likely
alternate destination it is reasonably possible that the aeroplane would be
forced to land onto
water
|
H
|
|
|
(v)
when flying over water:
|
|
|
|
(aa)
in the case of an aeroplane:
|
|
|
|
(aaa)
classified in its certificate of airworthiness as being of performance
group A, C or X; or
|
|
|
|
(bbb)
having no performance group classification in its certificate of
airworthiness and of such a weight and performance
that with any one of its
power units inoperative and the remaining power unit or units operating
within the maximum continuous
power conditions specified in the certificate
of airworthiness, performance schedule or flight manual relating to the
aeroplane
issued or rendered valid by the Governor it is capable of a
gradient of climb of at least 1 in 200 at an altitude of 5000 ft
in the
International Standard Atmosphere specified in or ascertainable by
reference to the certificate of airworthiness
in force in respect of that
aircraft;
|
|
|
|
when either more than 400
nautical miles or more than 90 minutes flying time[23]
from the nearest aerodrome at which an emergency landing can be made
|
H and K
|
|
|
(bb) in the case of all other
aeroplanes, when more than 30 minutes flying time[24]
from such an aerodrome
|
H and K
|
|
|
(vi) on all flights which
involve manoeuvres on water
|
H, J and K
|
|
|
(vii) when flying at a height of
10,000 ft or more above mean sea level:
|
|
|
|
(aa) having a certificate of
airworthiness first issued (whether in the Territory or elsewhere) before
1st January 1989
|
L1 or L2
|
|
|
(bb) having a certificate of
airworthiness first issued (whether in the Territory or elsewhere) on or
after 1st January
1989
|
L2
|
|
|
(viii) on flights when the
weather reports or forecasts available at the aerodrome at the time of
departure indicate that
conditions favouring ice formation are likely to be
met
|
M
|
|
|
(ix) when carrying out acrobatic
manoeuvres
|
B (iii)
|
|
|
(x) on all flights on which the
aircraft carries a flight crew of more than one person
|
N
|
|
|
(xi) on all flights for the
purpose of the public transport of passengers
|
Q and Y (i), (ii) and (iii)
|
|
|
(xii) on all flights by a
pressurised aircraft
|
R
|
|
|
(xiii) when flying over
substantially uninhabited land areas where, in the event of an emergency
landing tropical conditions
are likely to be met
|
U
|
|
|
(xiv) when flying over
substantially uninhabited land or other areas where, in the event of an
emergency landing, polar
conditions are likely to be met
|
V
|
|
|
(xv) when flying at an altitude
of more than 49,000 ft
|
W
|
|
(3)
Turbine-jet aeroplanes having a maximum total weight authorised exceeding
5,700 kg or pressurised
aircraft having a maximum total weight authorised exceeding
11,400 kg.
|
When flying for the purpose of public transport
|
O
|
|
(4)
Turbine-engined aeroplanes having a maximum total weight authorised
exceeding 5,700 kg and piston
engined aeroplanes having a maximum total
weight authorised exceeding 27,000 kg except for such aeroplanes falling
within
paragraphs (5) and (6):
|
|
|
|
(a) which are operated by an air
transport undertaking under a certificate of airworthiness in the Transport
Category (Passenger)
or the Transport Category (cargo); or
|
When flying on any flight
|
P
|
|
(b) in respect of which
application has been made and not withdrawn or refused for such a
certificate, and which fly under
the "A Conditions" or under a
certificate of airworthiness in the Special Category
|
When flying on any flight
|
P
|
|
(5)
Aeroplanes in respect of which there is in force a certificate of
airworthiness in the Transport
Category (Passenger) or Transport Category
(Cargo) and aeroplanes in respect of which application has been made, and
not
withdrawn or refused, for such a certificate of airworthiness and which
fly under the "A Conditions" or in respect
of which there is in
force a certificate of airworthiness in the Special Category except for
such aeroplanes falling within
paragraph (6):
|
|
|
|
(a) which conform to a type
first issued with a type certificate (whether in the Territory or
elsewhere) on or after 1st
April 1971 and which have a maximum total weight
authorised exceeding 5,700 kg but not exceeding 11,400 kg; or
|
When flying on any flight
|
S (i)
|
|
(b) which conform to a type
first issued with a type certificate (whether in the Territory or
elsewhere) on or after 1st
April 1971 and which have a maximum total weight
authorised exceeding 11,400 kg but not exceeding 27,000 kg; or
|
When flying on any flight
|
S (ii)
|
|
(c) which conform to a type
first issued with a type certificate (whether in the Territory or
elsewhere) on or after 1st
April 1971 and which have a maximum total weight
authorised exceeding 27,000 kg but not exceeding 230,000 kg; or
|
When flying on any flight
|
S (iii)
|
|
(d) which conform to a type
first issued with a type certificate (whether in the Territory or
elsewhere) on or after 1st
January 1970 and which have a maximum total
weight authorised exceeding 230,000 kg;
|
When flying on any flight
|
S (iii)
|
|
(6)
Aeroplanes in respect of which there is in force a certificate of
airworthiness in the Transport
Category (Passenger) or Transport Category
(Cargo) and aeroplanes in respect of which application has been made, and
not
withdrawn or refused, for such a certificate of airworthiness and which
fly under "A Conditions" or in respect of
which there is in force
a certificate of airworthiness in the Special Category:
|
|
|
|
(a) for which an individual
certificate of airworthiness was first issued (whether in the Territory or
elsewhere) on or
after 1st June 1990 and which have a maximum total weight
authorised not exceeding 5,700 kg, are powered by 2 or more turbine
engines
and are certified to carry more than 9 passengers; or
|
When flying on any flight
|
S (iv)
|
|
(b) for which an individual
certificate of airworthiness was first issued (whether in the Territory or
elsewhere) on or
after 1st June 1990 and which have a maximum total weight
authorised exceeding 5,700 kg but not exceeding 27,000 kg; or
|
When flying on any flight
|
S (v)
|
|
(c) for which an individual
certificate of airworthiness was first issued (whether in the Territory or
elsewhere) on or
after 1st June 1990 and which have a maximum total weight
authorised exceeding 27,000 kg.
|
When flying on any flight
|
S (vi)
|
|
(7)
Aeroplanes in respect of which there is in force a certificate of
airworthiness in the Aerial
Work or Private Category and for which an
individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued (whether in the
Territory
or elsewhere) on or after 1st June 1990 and which have a maximum
total weight authorised exceeding 27,000 kg.
|
When flying on any flight
|
S (vi)
|
|
(8)
Aeroplanes:
|
|
|
|
(a) which conform to a type
first issued with a type certificate (whether in the Territory or
elsewhere) on or after 1st
April 1971 and having a maximum total weight
authorised exceeding 27,000 kg and in respect of which there is in force a
certificate of airworthiness in the Transport Category (Passenger) or the
Transport Category (Cargo); or
|
When flying on any flight
|
T
|
|
(b) which conform to a type
first issued with a type certificate in the Territory on or after 1st
January 1970 and which
have a maximum total weight authorised exceeding
230,000 kg and in respect of which there is in force such a certificate of
airworthiness; or
|
When flying on any flight
|
T
|
|
(c) having a maximum total
weight authorised exceeding 27,000 kg which conform to a type first issued
with a type certificate
on or after 1st April 1971 (or 1st January 1970 in
the case of an aeroplane having a maximum total weight authorised exceeding
230,000 kg) in respect of which an application has been made, and not
withdrawn or refused for such a certificate of airworthiness
and which fly
under the "A Conditions" or in respect of which there is in force
a certificate of airworthiness
in the Special Category
|
When flying on any flight
|
T
|
|
(9)
Aeroplanes powered by one or more turbine jets or one or more turbine
propeller engines and
which have a maximum total weight authorised
exceeding 15,000 kg or which in accordance with the certificate of
airworthiness
in force in respect thereof may carry more than 30
passengers:
|
|
|
|
(a) except any such aeroplanes
as come within sub-paragraph (b)
|
When flying for the purpose of public transport
prior to 1st January 2005
|
X (i)
|
|
(b) for which an individual
certificate of airworthiness was first issued (whether in the Territory or
elsewhere) on or
after 1st July 2001
|
When flying for the purpose of public transport
|
X (ii)
|
|
(c) for which an individual
certificate of airworthiness was first issued (whether in the Territory or
elsewhere) before
1st July 2001
|
When flying for the purpose of public transport on
or after 1st January 2005
|
X (ii)
|
|
(10)
Aeroplanes which are powered by one or more turbine jets or one or more
turbine propeller engines
and which have a maximum total weight authorised
exceeding 5,700 kg but not exceeding 15,000 kg or which in accordance with
the certificate of airworthiness in force in respect thereof may carry more
than 9 passengers but not exceeding 30 passengers:
|
|
|
|
(a) except any such aeroplanes
as come within sub-paragraph (b)
|
When flying for the purpose of public transport on
or after 1st October 2001, except when flying under and in accordance with
the terms of a police air operator's certificate
|
X (ii)
|
|
(b) which have equipment capable
of giving warning to the pilot of the potentially hazardous proximity of
ground or water
installed before 1st April 2000
|
When flying for the purpose of public transport on
or after 1st January 2005, except when flying under and in accordance with
the terms of a police air operator's certificate
|
X (ii)
|
|
(11)
Aeroplanes which are powered by one or more turbine jets or one or more
turbine propeller engines
and which have a maximum total weight authorised
exceeding 5,700 kg or which in accordance with the certificate of
airworthiness
in force in respect thereof may carry more than 9 passengers:
|
|
|
|
(a) in respect of which there is
in force a certificate of airworthiness except any such aeroplanes as come
within sub-paragraph
(b)
|
When flying for the purpose of public transport on
or after 1st October 2001
|
X (ii)
|
|
(b) in respect of which there is
in force a certificate of airworthiness and which have equipment capable of
giving warning
to the pilot of the potentially hazardous proximity of
ground or water installed before 1st April 2000.
|
When flying for the purpose of public transport on
or after 1st January 2005
|
X (ii)
|
|
(12)
Aeroplanes:
|
|
|
|
(a) powered by one more
turbo-jets and which have a maximum total weight authorised exceeding
22,700 kg; or
|
When flying by night for the purpose of the public
transport of passengers
|
Z (i) and (ii)
|
|
(b) having a maximum total
weight authorised exceeding 5,700 kg, and which conform to a type for which
a certificate of
airworthiness was first applied for (whether in the
Territory or elsewhere) after 30th April 1972 but not including any
aeroplane which in the opinion of the Governor is identical in all matters
affecting the provision of emergency evacuation
facilities to an aeroplane
for which a certificate of airworthiness was first applied for before that
date; or
|
When flying by night for the purpose of the public
transport of passengers
|
Z (i) and (ii)
|
|
(c) which in accordance with the
certificate of airworthiness in force in respect thereof may carry more
than 19 passengers;
or
|
When flying by night for the purpose of the public
transport of passengers
|
Z (i)
|
|
(d) having a maximum total
weight authorised exceeding 5,700 kg, and which conform to a type for which
a certificate of
airworthiness was first applied for (whether in the
Territory or elsewhere) after 30th April 1972 but not including any
aeroplane which in the opinion of the Governor is identical in all matters
affecting the provision of emergency evacuation
facilities to an aeroplane
for which a certificate of airworthiness was first applied for before that
date; or
|
When flying for the purpose of the public
transport of passengers
|
Z (iii)
|
|
(e) powered by one or more
turbo-jets and which have a maximum total weight authorised exceeding
22,700 kg; or
|
When flying by night for the purpose of the public
transport of passengers
|
Z (iii)
|
|
(f) first issued with a type
certificate (whether in the Territory or elsewhere) on or after 1st January
1958 and which
in accordance with the certificate of airworthiness in force
in respect thereof may carry more than 19 passengers
|
When flying for the purpose of the public
transport of passengers
|
Z (iii)
|
|
(13)
Aeroplanes:
|
|
|
|
(a) powered by one or more
turbine jets
|
When flying on any flight
|
AA
|
|
(b) powered by one or more
turbine propeller engines and having a maximum total weight authorised
exceeding 5700 kg and
first issued with a certificate of airworthiness in
the Territory on or after 1st April 1989
|
When flying on any flight
|
AA
|
|
(14)
Aeroplanes in respect of which there is in force a certificate of
airworthiness in the Transport
Category (Passenger)
|
When flying for the purpose of the public
transport of passengers
|
Y (iv)
|
|
(15)
Helicopters and Gyroplanes
|
(a) Flying for purposes other
than public transport: and
|
A (i) and (ii) and B (i)
|
|
|
(i) when flying by day under
Visual Flight Rules with visual ground reference
|
D
|
|
|
(ii) when flying by day under
Instrument Flight Rules or without visual ground reference
|
|
|
|
(aa) outside controlled airspace
|
E with E (ii) duplicated
|
|
|
(bb) within controlled airspace
|
E with both E (ii) and E (iv) duplicated and F with F (iv) for all
weights
|
|
|
(iii) when flying at night
|
|
|
|
(aa) with visual ground
reference
|
C, E, G (iii) and G (v)
|
|
|
(bb) without visual ground
reference
|
|
|
|
(aaa) outside controlled
airspace
|
C, E and E (ii) duplicated G (iii) and G (v)
|
|
|
(bbb) within controlled airspace
|
C, E with both E (ii) and E (iv) duplicated, F with F (iv) for all
weights, G (iii) and G (v)
|
|
|
(b) flying for the purpose of
public transport; and
|
A, B (i) and (ii). F (i) and F (iv) for all weights
|
|
|
(i) when flying by day under
Visual Flight Rules with visual ground reference
|
D
|
|
|
(ii) when flying by day under
Instrument Flight Rules or without visual ground reference
|
E with both E (ii) and E (iv) duplicated, F (ii), F (iii) and F (v)
|
|
|
(iii) when flying by night with
visual ground reference
|
|
|
|
(aa) when flying with one pilot
|
C, E with E (ii) duplicated and either E (iv) duplicated or a radio
altimeter, F (ii), F (iii), F (v) and G
|
|
|
(bb) when flying in
circumstances where two pilots are required
|
C, E, F (ii), F (iii), F (v) and G for each pilot's station
|
|
|
(iv) when flying by night
without visual ground reference
|
C, E with both E (ii) and E (iv) duplicated, F (ii), F (iii), F (v)
and G
|
|
|
(v) when flying over water
|
|
|
|
(aa) in the case of a helicopter
or gyroplane classified in its certificate of airworthiness as being of
performance group
A2 or B when beyond autorotational gliding distance from
land suitable for an emergency landing
|
E and H
|
|
|
(bb) on all flights on which in
the event of any emergency occurring during the take-off or during the
landing at the intended
destination or any likely alternate destination it
is reasonably possible that the helicopter or gyroplane would be forced to
land onto water
|
H
|
|
|
(cc) in the case of a helicopter
or gyroplane classified in its certificate of airworthiness as being of
performance group
A2 when beyond 10 minutes flying time* from land
|
E, H, K and T
|
|
|
(dd) for more than a total of 3
minutes in any flight
|
EE
|
|
|
(ee) in the case of a helicopter
or a gyroplane classified in its certificate of airworthiness as being of
performance group
A2 which is intended to fly beyond 10 minutes flying
time* from land or which actually flies beyond 10 minutes flying time from
land, on a flight which is either in support of or in connection with the
offshore exploitation, or exploration of mineral
resources (including gas)
or is on a flight under and in accordance with the terms of a police air
operator's certificate,
when in either case the weather reports or
forecasts available to the commander of the aircraft indicate that the sea
temperature
will be less than plus 10 C during the flight or when any part
of the flight is at night
|
I
|
|
|
(vi) on all flights which
involve manoeuvres on water
|
H, J and K
|
|
|
(vii) when flying at a height of
10,000 ft or more above mean sea level:
|
|
|
|
(aa) having a certificate of
airworthiness first issued (whether in the Territory or elsewhere) before
1st January 1989
|
L1 or L2
|
|
|
(bb) having a certificate of
airworthiness first issued (whether in the Territory or elsewhere) on or
after 1st January
1989
|
L2
|
|
|
(viii) on flights when the
weather reports or forecasts available at the aerodrome at the time of
departure indicate that
conditions favouring ice formation are likely to be
met
|
M
|
|
|
(ix) on all flights on which the
aircraft carries a flight crew of more than one person
|
N
|
|
|
(x) on all flights for the
purpose of the transport of passengers
|
Y (i), (ii) and (iii)
|
|
|
(xi) when flying over
substantially uninhabited land areas where, in the event of an emergency
landing, tropical conditions
are likely to be met
|
U
|
|
|
(xii) when flying over
substantially uninhabited land or other areas where, in the event of an
emergency landing, polar
conditions are likely to be met
|
V
|
|
(16)
Helicopters and Gyroplanes:
|
|
|
|
(a) having a maximum total
weight authorised exceeding 5700 kg and which conform to a type for which a
certificate of airworthiness
was first applied for (whether in the
Territory or elsewhere) after 30th April 1972 but not including any
helicopter or
gyroplane which in the opinion of the Governor is identical
in all matters affecting the provision of emergency evacuation facilities
to a helicopter or gyroplane for which a certificate of airworthiness was
first applied for before that date; or
|
When flying by night for the purpose of the public
transport of passengers
|
Z (i) and (ii)
|
|
(b) which, in accordance with
the certificate of airworthiness in force in respect thereof may carry more
than 19 passengers,
or
|
When flying by night for the purpose of the public
transport of passengers
|
Z (i)
|
|
(c) which have a certificate of
airworthiness issued in the Transport Category (Passenger or Cargo) and
helicopters and
gyroplanes in respect of which application has been made
and not withdrawn or refused for such a certificate of airworthiness
and
which fly under the "A Conditions" or which have a certificate of
airworthiness in the Special Category and
|
|
|
|
(i) which have a maximum total
weight authorised exceeding 2730 kg but not exceeding 7000 kg or which in
accordance with
the certificate of airworthiness in force in respect
thereof may carry more than 9 passengers, or both
|
When flying on any flight
|
SS (i) or (iii)
|
|
(ii) which have a maximum total
weight authorised exceeding 7000 kg
|
When flying on any flight
|
SS (ii) or (iii)
|
5. The scales of equipment indicated in the foregoing Table shall be
as follows:
Scale A
(i) Spare fuses for all electrical circuits the fuses of which can be
replaced in flight, consisting of 10 per cent of the number
of each rating or
three of each rating, whichever is the greater.
(ii) Maps, charts, codes and other documents and navigational equipment
necessary, in addition to any other equipment required
under this Order, for
the intended flight of the aircraft including any diversion which may
reasonably be expected.
(iii) First aid equipment of good quality, sufficient in quantity, having
regard to the number of persons on board the aircraft,
and including the
following:
Roller bandages, triangular bandages, adhesive
plaster, absorbent gauze, cotton wool (or wound dressings in place of the
absorbent
gauze and cotton wool), burn dressings, safety pins;
Haemostatic bandages or tourniquets, scissors;
Antiseptic, analgesic and stimulant drugs;
Splints, in the case of aeroplanes the maximum total
weight authorised of which exceeds 5,700 kg;
A handbook on first aid.
(iv) In the case of a flying machine used for the public transport of
passengers in which, while the flying machine is at rest
on the ground, the
sill of any external door intended for the disembarkation of passengers,
whether normally or in an emergency:
(a) is more than 1.82 metres from the ground when the undercarriage of
the machine is in the normal position for taxying; or
(b) would be more than 1.82 metres from the ground if the undercarriage or
any part thereof should collapse, break or fail
to function;
apparatus
readily available for use at each such door consisting of a device or devices
which will enable passengers to reach
the ground safely in an emergency while
the flying machine is on the ground, and can be readily fixed in position for
use.
Scale AA
(i) Subject to sub-paragraph (ii), an altitude alerting system capable
of alerting the pilot upon approaching a preselected altitude
in either
ascent or descent, by a sequence of visual and aural signals in sufficient
time to establish level flight at that
preselected altitude and when
deviating above or below that preselected altitude, by a visual and an aural
signal.
(ii) If the system becomes unserviceable, the aircraft may fly or continue to
fly, until it first lands at a place at which
it is reasonably practicable
for the system to be repaired or replaced.
Scale B
(i)
(a) If the maximum total weight authorised of the aircraft is 2,730
kg, or less for every pilot's seat and for any seat situated
alongside a
pilot's seat, either a safety belt with one diagonal shoulder strap or a
safety harness, or with the permission
of the Governor, a safety belt without
a diagonal shoulder strap which permission may be granted if the Governor is
satisfied
that it is not reasonably practicable to fit a safety belt with one
diagonal shoulder strap or a safety harness.
(b) If the maximum total weight authorised of the aircraft exceeds 2,730 kg,
either a safety harness for every pilot's seat
and for any seat situated
alongside a pilot's seat, or with the permission of the Governor, a safety
belt with one diagonal
shoulder strap which permission may be granted if the
Governor is satisfied that it is not reasonably practicable to fit a safety
harness.
(c) For every seat in use (not being a seat referred to in sub-paragraphs
(a), (b), (e) and (f)) a safety belt with or without
one diagonal shoulder
strap or a safety harness.
(d) In addition and to be attached to or secured by the equipment required in
sub-paragraph (c) above, a child restraint device
for every child under the
age of two years on board.
(e) On all flights for the public transport of passengers by aircraft, for
each seat for use by cabin attendants who are required
to be carried under
this Order, a safety harness.
(f) On all flights in aeroplanes in respect of which a certificate of
airworthiness was first issued (whether in the Territory
or elsewhere) on or
after 1st February 1989 the maximum total weight authorised of which does not
exceed 5,700 kg which in
accordance with the certificate of airworthiness in
force thereof is not capable of seating more than 9 passengers (otherwise
than in seats referred to under sub-paragraphs (a) and (b)), a safety belt
with one diagonal shoulder strap or a safety harness
for each seat intended
for use by a passenger.
(ii) If the commander cannot, from his own seat, see all the
passengers' seats in the aircraft, a means of indicating to the passengers
that seat belts should be fastened.
(iii)
(a) Subject to sub-paragraph (b), a safety harness for every seat in
use.
(b) In the case of an aircraft carrying out aerobatic manoeuvres consisting
only of erect spinning, the Governor may permit
a safety belt with one
diagonal shoulder strap to be fitted if he is satisfied that such restraint
is sufficient for the carrying
out of erect spinning in that aircraft and
that it is not reasonably practicable to fit a safety harness in that
aircraft.
Scale C
(i) Equipment for displaying the lights required by the Rules of the
Air.
(ii) Electrical equipment, supplied from the main source of supply in the
aircraft, to provide sufficient illumination to enable
the flight crew
properly to carry out their duties during flight.
(iii) Unless the aircraft is equipped with radio, devices for making the
visual signal specified in the Rules of the Air as
indicating a request for
permission to land.
Scale D
(i)
(a) In the case of a helicopter or gyroplane, a slip indicator.
(b) In the case of any other flying machine either:
(aa) a turn indicator and a slip indicator; or
(bb) a gyroscopic bank and pitch indicator and a gyroscopic direction
indicator.
(ii) A sensitive pressure altimeter adjustable for any sea level barometric
pressure which the weather report or forecasts
available to the commander of
the aircraft indicate is likely to be encountered during the intended flight.
Scale E
(i)
(a) In the case of a helicopter or gyroplane, a slip indicator.
(b) In the case of any other flying machine, a slip indicator and either a
turn indicator or, at the option of the operator,
an additional gyroscopic
bank and pitch indicator.
(ii) A gyroscopic bank and pitch indicator.
(iii) A gyroscopic direction indicator.
(iv) A sensitive pressure altimeter adjustable for any sea level barometric
pressure which the weather report or forecasts
available to the commander of
the aircraft indicate is likely to be encountered during the intended flight.
Scale EE
(i) Subject to sub-paragraph (ii), a radio altimeter with an audio
voice warning operating below a pre-set height and a visual
warning capable
of operating at a height selectable by the pilot.
(ii) A helicopter flying under and in accordance with the terms of a police
air operator's certificate may instead be equipped
with a radio altimeter
with an audio warning and a visual warning each capable of operating at a
height selectable by the pilot.
Scale F
(i) A timepiece indicating the time in hours, minutes and seconds.
(ii) A means of indicating whether the power supply to the gyroscopic
instrument is adequate.
(iii) A rate of climb and descent indicator.
(iv) If the maximum total weight authorised of the aircraft exceeds 5,700 kg
a means of indicating outside air temperature.
(v) If the maximum total weight authorised of the aircraft exceeds 5,700 kg
two air speed indicators.
Scale G
(i) In the case of an aircraft other than a helicopter or gyroplane
landing lights consisting of 2 single filament lamps, or one
dual filament
lamp with separately energised filaments.
(ii) An electrical lighting system to provide illumination in every passenger
compartment.
(iii)
(a) One electric torch for each member of the crew of the aircraft; or
(b)
(aa) one electric torch for each member of the flight crew of the
aircraft; and
(bb) at least one electric torch affixed adjacent to each floor level exit
intended for the disembarkation of passengers whether
normally or in an
emergency, provided that such torches shall:
(aaa) be readily accessible for use by the crew of the aircraft at all
times; and
(bbb) number in total not less than the minimum number of cabin attendants
required to be carried with a full passenger complement.
(iv) In the case of an aircraft other than a helicopter or gyroplane
of which the maximum total weight authorised exceeds 5,700
kg, means of
observing the existence and build up of ice on the aircraft.
(v)
(a) In the case of a helicopter or gyroplane in respect of which there
is in force a certificate of airworthiness designating the
helicopter or
gyroplane as being of performance group A, either:
(aa) two landing lights both of which are adjustable so as to
illuminate the ground in front of and below the helicopter or gyroplane
and
one of which is adjustable so as to illuminate the ground on either side of the
helicopter or gyroplane; or
(bb) one landing light or, if the maximum total weight authorised of the
helicopter or gyroplane exceeds 5,700 kg, one dual
filament landing light
with separately energised filaments, or 2 single filament lights, each of which
is adjustable so as
to illuminate the ground in front of and below the
helicopter or gyroplane, and 2 parachute flares.
(b) In the case of a helicopter or gyroplane in respect of which there
is in force a certificate of airworthiness designating the
helicopter or
gyroplane as being of performance group B, either:
(aa) one landing light and 2 parachute flares: or
(bb) if the maximum total weight authorised of the helicopter or gyroplane
exceeds 5,700 kg, either one dual filament landing
light with separately
energised filaments or 2 single filament landing lights, and 2 parachute
flares.
Scale H
(i) Subject to sub-paragraph (ii), for each person on board, a
lifejacket equipped with a whistle and waterproof torch.
(ii) Lifejackets constructed and carried solely for use by children under
three years of age need not be equipped with a whistle.
Scale I
A survival suit for each member of the crew.
Scale J
(i) Additional flotation equipment, capable of supporting one fifth of
the number of persons on board, and provided in a place
of stowage accessible
from outside the flying machine.
(ii) Parachute distress rocket signals capable of making, from the surface of
the water, the pyrotechnical signal of distress
specified in the Rules of the
Air and complying with Part III of Schedule 15 to the Merchant Shipping
(Life-Saving Appliances)
Regulations 1980[25].
(iii) A sea anchor and other equipment necessary to facilitate mooring, anchoring
or manoeuvring the flying machine on water,
appropriate to its size, weight
and handling characteristics.
Scale K
(i)
(a) In the case of a flying machine, other than a helicopter or
gyroplane carrying 20 or more persons, liferafts sufficient to
accommodate
all persons on board.
(b) In the case of a helicopter or gyroplane carrying 20 or more persons, a
minimum of 2 liferafts sufficient together to accommodate
all persons on
board.
(ii) Each liferaft shall contain the following equipment:
(a) means for maintaining buoyancy;
(b) a sea anchor;
(c) life-lines, and means of attaching one liferaft to another;
(d) paddles or other means of propulsion;
(e) means of protecting the occupants from the elements;
(f) a waterproof torch;
(g) marine type pyrotechnical distress signals;
(h) means of making sea water drinkable, unless the full quantity of fresh
water is carried as specified in sub-paragraph (i);
(i) for each 4 or proportion of 4 persons the liferaft is designed to carry:
(aa) 100 grammes of glucose toffee tablets; and
(bb) half a litre of fresh water in durable containers or in any case in
which it is not reasonably practicable to carry the
quantity of water above
specified, as large a quantity of fresh water as is reasonably practicable in
the circumstances. In
no case however shall the quantity of water carried be
less than is sufficient, when added to the amount of fresh water capable
of
being produced by means of the equipment specified in sub-paragraph (h) to
provide litre of water for each 4 or proportion
of 4 persons the liferaft
is designed to carry.
(j) first aid equipment.
(iii) Items (ii)(f) to (j) inclusive shall be contained in a pack.
(iv) The number of survival beacon radio apparatus carried when the aircraft
is carrying the number of liferafts specified
in column 1 of the following
Table shall be not less than the number specified in, or calculated in
accordance with, column
2.
|
Column 1
|
Column 2
|
|
Not more than 8 liferafts
|
2 survival beacon radio apparatus
|
|
For every additional 4 or proportion of 4 liferafts
|
1 additional survival beacon radio apparatus
|
(v) In the case of a helicopter or gyroplane, an emergency beacon which is
automatically deployed and activated in the event
of a crash.
Scale L 1
Part 1
(i) In every flying machine which is provided with means for
maintaining a pressure greater than 700 hectopascals throughout the
flight in
the flight crew compartment and in the compartments in which the passengers
are carried:
(a) a supply of oxygen sufficient, in the event of failure to maintain
such pressure, occurring in the circumstances specified
in columns 1 and 2 of
the Table set out in Part II, for continuous use, during the periods
specified in column 3 of the said
Table, by the persons for whom oxygen is to
be provided in accordance with column 4 of that Table; and
(b) in addition, in every case where the flying machine flies above flight
level 350, a supply of oxygen in a portable container
sufficient for the
simultaneous first aid treatment of 2 passengers;
together with
suitable and sufficient apparatus to enable such persons to use the oxygen.
(ii) In any other flying machine:
(a) a supply of oxygen sufficient for continuous use by all the crew
other than the flight crew, and if passengers are carried,
by 10 per cent of
the number of passengers, for any period exceeding 30 minutes during which
the flying machine flies above
flight level 100 but not above flight level
130 and the flight crew shall be supplied with oxygen sufficient for
continuous
use for any period during which the flying machine flies above
flight level 100; and
(b) a supply of oxygen sufficient for continuous use by all persons on board
for the whole time during which the flying machine
flies above flight level
130; together with suitable and sufficient apparatus to enable such persons
to use the oxygen.
(iii) The quantity of oxygen required for the purpose of complying
with paragraphs (i) and (ii) of this Part shall be computed
in accordance
with the information and instructions relating thereto specified in the
operations manual relating to the aircraft
pursuant to item (vi) of Part A of
Schedule 10 to this Order.
Part II
|
Column 1
|
Column 2
|
Column 3
|
Column 4
|
|
Vertical displacement of the flying machine in
relation to flight levels
|
Capability of flying machine to descend (where
relevant)
|
Period of supply of oxygen
|
Persons for whom oxygen is to be provided
|
|
Above flight level 100
|
|
30 minutes or the period specified at A hereunder whichever is the
greater
|
In addition to any passengers for whom oxygen is provided as
specified below, all the crew
|
|
Above flight level 100 but not above flight level 300
|
Flying machine is either flying at or below flight level 150 or is
capable of descending and continuing to destination as specified
at X hereunder
|
30 minutes or the period specified at A hereunder whichever is the
greater
|
10% of number of passengers
|
|
Above flight level 100 but not above flight level 300
|
Flying machine is flying above flight level 150 and is not so
capable
|
10 minutes or the period specified at B hereunder whichever is the
greater and in addition
|
All passengers
|
|
Above flight level 100 but not above flight level 300
|
Flying machine is flying above flight level 150 and is not so
capable
|
30 minutes or the period specified at C hereunder whichever is the
greater
|
10% of number of passengers
|
|
Above flight level 300 but not above flight level 350
|
Flying machine is capable of descending and continuing to
destination as specified at Y hereunder
|
30 minutes or the period specified at A hereunder whichever is the
greater
|
15% of number of passengers
|
|
Above flight level 300 but not above flight level 350
|
Flying machine is not so capable
|
10 minutes or the period specified at B hereunder whichever is the
greater and in addition
|
All passengers
|
|
Above flight level 300 but not above flight level 350
|
Flying machine is not so capable
|
30 minutes or the period specified at C hereunder whichever is the
greater and in addition
|
15% of number of passengers
|
|
Above flight level 350
|
|
10 minutes or the period specified at B hereunder whichever is the
greater and in addition
|
All passengers
|
|
Above flight level 350
|
|
30 minutes or the period specified at C hereunder whichever is the
greater
|
15% of number of passengers
|
A The whole period during which, after a
failure to maintain a pressure greater than 700 hectopascals in the control
compartment
and in the compartments in which passengers are carried has
occurred, the flying machine flies above flight level 100.
B The whole period during which, after a
failure to maintain such pressure has occurred, the flying machine flies
above flight
level 150.
C The whole period during which, after a
failure to maintain such pressure has occurred, the flying machine flies
above flight
level 100, but not above flight level 150.
X The flying machine is capable, at the time
when a failure to maintain such pressure occurs, of descending in accordance
with
the emergency descent procedure specified in the relevant flight manual
and without flying below the minimum altitudes for safe
flight specified in
the operations manual relating to the aircraft, to flight level 150 within 6
minutes, and of continuing
at or below that flight level to its place of
intended destination or any other place at which a safe landing can be made.
Y The flying machine is capable, at the time
when a failure to maintain such pressure occurs, of descending in accordance
with
the emergency descent procedure specified in the relevant flight manual
and without flying below the minimum altitudes for safe
flight specified in
the operations manual relating to the aircraft, to flight level 150 within 4
minutes, and of continuing
at or below that flight level to its place of
intended destination or any other place at which a safe landing can be made.
Scale L2
A supply of oxygen and the associated equipment to meet the requirements set
out in Parts I and II. The duration for the purposes
of this Scale shall be:
(i) that calculated in accordance with the operations manual prior to
the commencement of the flight, being the period or periods
which it is
reasonably anticipated that the aircraft will be flown in the circumstances
of the intended flight at a height
where the said requirements apply and in
calculating the said duration account shall be taken of:
(a) in the case of pressurised aircraft, the possibility of
depressurisation when flying above flight level 100;
(b) the possibility of failure of one or more of the aircraft engines;
(c) restrictions due to required minimum safe altitude;
(d) fuel requirement; and
(e) the performance of the aircraft; or
(ii) the period or periods during which the aircraft is actually flown
in the circumstances specified in the said Parts;
whichever is the greater.
Part I
Unpressurised aircraft
(i) When flying at or below flight level 100:
Nil.
(ii) When flying above flight level 100 but not exceeding flight level
120:
|
Supply for
|
Duration
|
|
(a) Members of the flight crew
|
Any period during which the aircraft flies above flight level 100
|
|
(b) Cabin attendants and 10% of
passengers
|
For any continuous period exceeding 30 minutes during which the
aircraft flies above flight level 100 but not exceeding flight
level 120
the duration shall be the period by which 30 minutes is exceeded
|
(iii) When flying above flight level 120:
|
Supply for
|
Duration
|
|
(a) Members of the flight crew
|
Any period during which the aircraft flies above flight level 100
|
|
(b) Cabin attendants and all
passengers
|
Any period during which the aircraft flies above flight level 120
|
Part II
Pressurised aircraft
(i) When flying at or below flight level 100:
Nil,
(ii) When flying above flight level 100 but not exceeding flight level
250:
|
Supply for
|
Duration
|
|
(a) Members of the flight crew
|
30 minutes or whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10,000
ft, whichever is the greater
|
|
(b) Cabin attendants and 10% of
passengers
|
(aa) When the aircraft is
capable of descending and continuing to its destination as specified at A
hereunder, 30 minutes
or whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10,000
ft, whichever is the greater
(bb) When the aircraft is not so capable, whenever the cabin pressure
altitude is greater than 10,000 ft but does not exceed
12,000 ft
|
|
(c) Cabin attendants and
passengers
|
(aa) When the aircraft is
capable of descending and continuing to its destination as specified at A
hereunder, no requirement
other than that at (ii)(b)(aa) of this Part of
this Scale
(bb) When the aircraft is not so capable and the cabin pressure altitude
exceeds 12,000 ft, the duration shall be the period
when the cabin pressure
altitude exceeds 12,000 ft or 10 minutes, whichever is the greater
|
(iii) When flying above flight level 250:
|
(a) Members of the flight crew
|
2 hours or whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10,000 ft,
whichever is the greater
|
|
(b) Cabin attendants
|
Whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10,000 ft, and a
portable supply for 15 minutes
|
|
(c) 10% of passengers
|
Whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10,000 ft but does not
exceed 12,000 ft
|
|
(d) 30% of passengers
|
Whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 12,000 ft but does not
exceed 15,000 ft
|
|
(e) All passengers
|
If the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 15,000 ft the duration shall
be the period when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 15,000
ft or 10
minutes, whichever is the greater
|
|
(f) 2% of passengers or 2
passengers, whichever is the greater, being a supply of first aid oxygen
which must be available
for simultaneous first aid treatment of 2% or 2
passengers wherever they are seated in the aircraft
|
Whenever, after decompression, the cabin pressure altitude exceeds
8,000 ft
|
A The flying machine is capable, at the time when a failure to
maintain cabin pressurisation occurs, of descending in accordance
with the
emergency descent procedure specified in the relevant flight manual and
without flying below the minimum altitudes
for safe flight specified in the
operations manual relating to the aircraft, to flight level 120 within 5
minutes and of continuing
at or below that flight level to its place of
intended destination or any other place at which a safe landing can be made.
Scale M
Equipment to prevent the impairment through ice formation of the functioning
of the controls, means of propulsion, lifting
surfaces, windows or equipment
of the aircraft so as to endanger the safety of the aircraft.
Scale N
An intercommunication system for use by all members of the flight crew and
including microphones, not of a hand-held type,
for use by the pilot and
flight engineer (if any).
Scale O
(i) Subject to paragraph (ii), a radar set capable of giving warning
to the pilot in command of the aircraft and to the co-pilot
of the presence
of cumulo-nimbus and other potentially hazardous weather conditions.
(ii) A flight may commence if the set is unserviceable or continue if the set
becomes unserviceable thereafter:
(a) so as to give the warning only to one pilot, so long as the
aircraft is flying only to the place at which it first becomes
reasonably
practicable for the set to be repaired; or
(b) when the weather report or forecasts available to the commander of the
aircraft indicate that cumulo-nimbus clouds or other
hazardous weather
conditions, which can be detected by the set when in working order, are
unlikely to be encountered on the
intended route or any planned diversion
therefrom or the commander has satisfied himself that any such weather
conditions will
be encountered in daylight and can be seen and avoided, and
the aircraft is in either case operated throughout the flight in accordance
with any relevant instructions given in the operations manual.
Scale P
(i) Subject to paragraphs (ii) and (v), a flight data recorder which
is capable of recording, by reference to a time-scale, the
following data:
(a) indicated airspeed;
(b) indicated altitude;
(c) vertical acceleration;
(d) magnetic heading;
(e) pitch attitude, if the equipment provided in the aeroplane is of such a
nature as to enable this item to be recorded;
(f) engine power, if the equipment provided in the aeroplane is of such a
nature as to enable this item to be recorded;
(g) flap position;
(h) roll attitude, if the equipment provided in the aeroplane is of such a
nature as to enable this item to be recorded.
(ii) Subject to paragraph (v), any aeroplane having a maximum total
weight authorised not exceeding 11,400 kg may be provided with:
(a) a flight data recorder capable of recording the data described in
paragraph (i)(a) to (i)(h); or
(b) a four channel cockpit voice recorder.
(iii) Subject to paragraph (v), in addition, on all flights by
turbine-powered aeroplanes having a maximum total weight authorised
exceeding
11,400 kg, a 4 channel cockpit voice recorder.
(iv) The night data recorder and cockpit voice recorder referred to above
shall be so constructed that the record would be
likely to be preserved in
the event of an accident to the aeroplane.
(v) An aeroplane shall not be required to carry the said equipment, if before
take-off the equipment is found to be unserviceable
and the aircraft flies in
accordance with arrangements approved by the Governor.
Scale Q
If the maximum total weight authorised of the aeroplane exceeds 5,700 kg and
it was first registered, whether in the Territory
or elsewhere, on or after
1st June 1965, a door between the flight crew compartment and any adjacent
compartment to which passengers
have access, which door shall be fitted with
a lock or bolt capable of being worked from the flight crew compartment.
Scale R
(i)
(a) In respect of aeroplanes having a maximum total weight authorised
exceeding 5,700 kg equipment sufficient to protect the eyes,
nose and mouth
of all members of the flight crew required to be carried by virtue of article
20 of this Order for a period
of not less than 15 minutes and, in addition,
where the minimum flight crew required as aforesaid is more than one and a
cabin
attendant is not required to be carried by virtue of article 20 of this
Order, portable equipment sufficient to protect the eyes,
nose and mouth of
one member of the flight crew for a period of not less than 15 minutes.
(b) In respect of aeroplanes having a maximum total weight authorised not
exceeding 5,700 kg, either the equipment specified
in paragraph (i)(a) or, in
the case of such aeroplanes restricted by virtue of the operator's operations
manual to flight at
or below flight level 250 and capable of descending as
specified at A hereunder such equipment sufficient to protect the eyes
only.
(ii)
(a) In respect of aeroplanes having a maximum total weight authorised
exceeding 5,700 kg, portable equipment to protect the eyes,
nose and mouth of
all cabin attendants required to be carried by virtue of article 20 of this
Order for a period of not less
than 15 minutes.
(b) In respect of aeroplanes having a maximum total weight authorised not
exceeding 5,700 kg, subject to sub-paragraph (c),
the equipment specified in
paragraph (ii)(a).
(c) Sub-paragraph (b) shall not apply to such aeroplanes restricted by virtue
of the operator's operations manual to flight
at or below flight level 250
and capable of descending as specified at A hereunder.
A The aeroplane is capable of descending in accordance with the emergency
descent procedure specified in the relevant flight
manual and without flying
below the minimum altitudes for safe flight specified in the operations
manual relating to the aeroplane,
to flight level 100 within 4 minutes and of
continuing at or below that flight level to its place of intended destination
or
any other place at which a safe landing can be made.
Scale S
Subject to paragraph (vii), a flight recording system comprising:
(i) either a 4 channel cockpit voice recorder or a flight data
recorder capable of recording by reference to a time scale the data
required
to determine the following matters accurately in respect of the aeroplane:
the flight plan, attitude and the basic
lift, thrust and drag forces acting
upon it;
(ii) a 4 channel cockpit voice recorder and a flight data recorder capable of
recording by reference to a time scale the data
required to determine the
following matters accurately in respect of the aeroplane: the information
specified in paragraph
(i) together with use of VHF transmitters;
(iii) a 4 channel cockpit voice recorder and a flight data recorder capable
of recording by reference to a time scale the data
required to determine the
following matters accurately in respect of the aeroplane: the flight path,
attitude, the basic lift,
thrust and drag forces acting upon it, the
selection of high lift devices (if any) and airbrakes (if any), the position
of
primary flying control and pitch trim surfaces, outside air temperature,
instrument landing deviations, use of automatic flight
control systems, use
of VHF transmitters, radio altitude (if any), the level or availability of
essential AC electricity supply
and cockpit warnings relating to engine fire
and engine shut-down, cabin pressurisation, presence of smoke and
hydraulic/pneumatic
power supply;
(iv) either a cockpit voice recorder and a flight data recorder or a combined
cockpit voice recorder/flight data recorder capable
in either case of
recording by reference to a time scale the data required to determine the
following matters accurately in
respect of the aeroplane: the flight path,
speed, attitude, engine power, outside air temperature, configuration of lift
and
drag devices, use of VHF transmitters and use of automatic flight control
systems;
(v) a cockpit voice recorder and a flight data recorder capable of recording
by reference to a time scale the data required
to determine the following
matters accurately in respect of the aeroplane: the flight path, speed,
attitude, engine power,
outside air temperature, configuration of lift and
drag devices, use of VHF transmitters and use of automatic flight control
systems;
(vi) a cockpit voice recorder and a flight data recorder capable of recording
by reference to a time scale the data required
to determine the following
matters accurately in respect of the aeroplane: the flight path, speed,
attitude, engine power,
outside air temperature, instrument landing system
deviations, marker beacon passage, radio altitude, configuration of the
landing gear and lift and drag devices, position of primary flying controls,
pitch trim position, use of automatic flight control
systems, use of VHF
transmitters, ground speed/drift angle or latitude/longitude if the navigational
equipment provided in
the aeroplane is of such a nature as to enable this
information to be recorded with reasonable practicability, cockpit warnings
relating to ground proximity and the master warning system;
(vii) an aircraft shall not be required to carry the said equipment if before
take-off the equipment is found to be unserviceable
and the aircraft flies in
accordance with arrangements approved by the Governor.
The cockpit
voice recorder or flight data recorder or combined cockpit voice recorder/flight
data recorder, as the case may
be, shall be so constructed that the record
would be likely to be preserved in the event of an accident.
Scale SS
(i) Subject to paragraph (iv), a four channel cockpit voice recorder
capable of recording and retaining the data recorded during
at least the last
30 minutes of its operation and a flight data recorder capable of recording
and retaining the data recorded
during at least the last eight hours of its
operation being the data required to determine by reference to a time scale
the
following matters accurately in respect of the helicopter or gyroplane:
(a) flight path;
(b) speed;
(c) attitude;
(d) engine power;
(e) main rotor speed;
(f) outside air temperature;
(g) position of pilot's primary flight controls;
(h) use of VHF transmitters;
(j) use of automatic flight controls (if any);
(k) use of stability augmentation system (if any);
(l) cockpit warnings relating to the master warning system; and
(m) selection of hydraulic system and cockpit warnings of failure of
essential hydraulic systems.
(ii) Subject to paragraph (iv), a 4 channel cockpit voice recorder
capable of recording and retaining the data recorded during
at least the last
30 minutes of its operation and a flight data recorder capable of recording
and retaining the data recorded
during at least the last 8 hours of its
operation being the data required to determine by reference to a time scale
the information
specified in paragraph (i) together with the following
matters accurately in respect of the helicopter or gyroplane:
(n) landing gear configuration;
(p) indicated sling load force if an indicator is provided in the helicopter
or gyroplane of such a nature as to enable this
information to be recorded
with reasonable practicability;
(q) radio altitude;
(r) instrument landing system deviations;
(s) marker beacon passage;
(t) ground speed/drift angle or latitude/longitude if the navigational
equipment provided in the helicopter or gyroplane is
of such a nature as to
enable this information to be recorded with reasonable practicability; and
(u) main gear box oil temperature and pressure.
(iii) Subject to paragraph (iv):
(a) A combined, cockpit voice recorder/flight data recorder which
meets the following requirements:
(aa) in the case of a helicopter or gyroplane which is otherwise
required to carry a flight data recorder specified at paragraph
(i) the
flight data recorder shall be capable of recording the data specified therein
and retaining it for the duration therein
specified;
(bb) in the case of a helicopter or gyroplane which is otherwise required to
carry a flight data recorder specified at paragraph
(ii), the flight data
recorder shall be capable of recording the data specified therein and
retaining it for the duration therein
specified;
(cc) the cockpit voice recorder shall be capable of recording and retaining
at least the last hour of cockpit voice recording
information on not less
than three separate channels.
(b)
(aa) In any case when a combined cockpit voice recorder/flight data
recorder specified at paragraph (iii)(a) is required to be
carried by or
under this Order, the flight data recorder shall be capable, subject to
sub-paragraph (bb), of retaining as protected
data the data recorded during
at least the last 5 hours of its operation or the maximum duration of the
flight, whichever is
the greater. It shall also be capable of retaining
additional data as unprotected data for a period which together with the
period for which protected data is required to be retained amounts to a total
of 8 hours.
(bb) The flight data recorder need not be capable of retaining the said
additional data if additional data is retained which
relates to the period
immediately preceding the period to which the required protected data relates
or for such other period
or periods as the Governor may permit pursuant to
article 53 of this Order and the additional data is retained in accordance
with arrangements approved by the Governor.
(iv) A helicopter or gyroplane shall not be required to carry the said equipment
if, before take-off, the equipment is found
to be unserviceable and the
aircraft flies in accordance with arrangements approved by the Governor.
With the
exception of flight data which it is expressly stated above may be
unprotected, the cockpit voice recorder, flight
data recorder or combined
cockpit voice recorder and flight data recorder, as the case may be, shall be
so constructed and
installed that the record (herein referred to as
"protected data") would be likely to be preserved in the event of
an accident and each cockpit voice recorder, flight data recorder or combined
cockpit voice recorder/flight data recorder required
to be carried on the
helicopter or gyroplane shall have attached an automatically activated
underwater sonar location device
or an emergency locator radio transmitter.
Scale T
An underwater sonar location device except in respect of those helicopters or
gyroplanes which are required to carry equipment
in accordance with Scale SS.
Scale U
(i) 1 survival beacon radio apparatus;
(ii) marine type pyrotechnical distress signals;
(iii) for each 4 or proportion of 4 persons on board, 100 grammes of glucose
toffee tablets;
(iv) for each 4 or proportion of 4 persons on board, litre of fresh water
in durable containers;
(v) first aid equipment.
Scale V
(i) 1 survival beacon radio apparatus;
(ii) marine type pyrotechnical distress signals;
(iii) for each 4 or proportion of 4 persons on board, 100 grammes of glucose
toffee tablets;
(iv) for each 4 or proportion of 4 persons on board, litre of fresh water
in durable containers;
(v)
first aid equipment;
(vi) for every 75 or proportion of 75 persons on board, 1 stove
suitable for use with aircraft fuel;
(vii) 1 cooking utensil, in which snow or ice can be melted;
(viii) 2 snow shovels;
(ix) 2 ice saws;
(x) single or multiple sleeping bags, sufficient for the use of one-third of
all persons on board;
(xi) 1 Arctic suit for each member of the crew of the aircraft.
Scale W
(i) Subject to paragraph (ii), cosmic radiation detection equipment
calibrated in millirems per hours and capable of indicating
the action and
alert levels of radiation dose rate.
(ii) An aircraft shall not be required to carry the said equipment if before
take-off the equipment is found to be unserviceable
and it is not reasonably
practicable to repair or replace it at the aerodrome of departure and the
radiation forecast available
to the commander of the aircraft indicates that
hazardous radiation conditions are unlikely to be encountered by the aircraft
on its intended route or any planned diversion therefrom.
Scale X
(i) Subject to paragraph (iii), a Ground Proximity Warning System
being equipment capable of giving warning to the pilot of the
potentially
hazardous proximity of ground or water.
(ii) Subject to paragraph (iii), a Terrain Awareness and Warning System being
equipment capable of giving warning to the pilot
of the potentially hazardous
proximity of ground or water, including a predictive terrain hazard warning
function.
(iii) If the equipment becomes unserviceable, the aircraft may fly or
continue to fly until it first lands at a place at which
it is reasonably
practicable for the equipment to be repaired or replaced.
Scale Y
(i) If the aircraft may in accordance with its certificate of airworthiness
carry more than 19 and less than 100 passengers, one
portable battery-powered
megaphone capable of conveying instructions to all persons in the passenger
compartment and readily
available for use by a member of the crew.
(ii) If the aircraft may in accordance with its certificate of airworthiness
carry more than 99 and less than 200 passengers,
2 portable battery-powered
megaphones together capable of conveying instructions to all persons in the
passenger compartment
and each readily available for use by a member of the
crew.
(iii) If the aircraft may in accordance with its certificate of airworthiness
carry more than 199 passengers, 3 portable battery-powered
megaphones
together capable of conveying instructions to all persons in the passenger compartment
and each readily available
for use by a member of the crew.
(iv) If the aircraft may in accordance with its certificate of airworthiness
carry more than 19 passengers:
(a) a public address system; and
(b) an interphone system of communication between members of the flight crew
and the cabin attendants.
Scale Z
(i) An emergency lighting system to provide illumination in the
passenger compartment sufficient to facilitate the evacuation of
the aircraft
notwithstanding the failure of the lighting systems specified in paragraph
(ii) of Scale G.
(ii) An emergency lighting system to provide illumination outside the
aircraft sufficient to facilitate the evacuation of the
aircraft.
(iii)
(a) Subject to sub-paragraph (b), an emergency floor path lighting
system in the passenger compartment sufficient to facilitate
the evacuation
of the aircraft notwithstanding the failure of the lighting systems specified
in paragraph (ii) of Scale G.
(b) If the equipment specified in sub-paragraph (a) becomes unserviceable the
aircraft may fly or continue to fly in accordance
with arrangements approved
by the Governor.
SCHEDULE 5
Articles
15 and 52
Radio and radio navigation equipment to be carried
in aircraft
1. Every aircraft shall be provided, when
flying in the circumstances specified in the first column of the Table set
forth in
paragraph 2 of this Schedule, with the scales of equipment
respectively indicated in that Table save that if the aircraft is flying
in a
combination of such circumstances the scales of equipment shall not on that
account be required to be duplicated.
2. Table
|
Aircraft and
circumstances of flight
|
Scale of
equipment required
|
|
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
E
|
F
|
G
|
H
|
J
|
|
1. All aircraft (other than
gliders) within the Territory:
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
(a)
when flying under Instrument Flight Rules within controlled airspace
|
A*
|
|
|
|
E*
|
F*#
|
|
|
|
|
(b)
when flying within controlled airspace
|
A*
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
(c)
when making an approach to landing at an aerodrome notified for the purpose
of this sub-paragraph
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
G*
|
|
|
|
(2)
All aircraft within the Territory:
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
(a)
when flying at or above flight level 245
|
A*
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
(b)
when flying within airspace notified for the purposes of this sub-paragraph
|
A*
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
(3)
All aircraft (other than gliders) within the Territory:
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
(a)
when flying at or above flight level 245
|
|
|
|
|
E*
|
F*
|
|
|
|
|
(b)
when flying within airspace notified for the purpose of this sub-paragraph
|
|
|
|
|
E*
|
|
|
|
|
|
(c)
when flying at or above flight level 100
|
|
|
|
|
E*
|
|
|
|
|
|
(4)
All aircraft registered in the Territory, wherever they may be:
(a) when
flying for the purpose of public transport under Instrument Flight Rules:
(i) while
making an approach to landing
|
A
|
|
C
|
D
|
|
|
|
H
|
|
|
(ii)
on all other occasions
|
A
|
|
C
|
|
|
|
|
H
|
|
|
(b)
subject to sub-paragraph (d), multi-engined aircraft when flying for the
purpose of public transport under Visual Flight
Rules
|
A
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
H
|
|
|
(c)
subject to sub-paragraph (d), single-engined aircraft when flying for the
purpose of public transport under Visual Flight
Rules:
(i) over a
route on which navigation is effected solely by visual reference to
landmarks
|
A
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
(ii)
on all other occasions
|
A
|
B
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
(d)
when flying under Instrument Flight Rules within controlled airspace and
not required to comply with paragraph (4)(a)
above
|
A*
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
(5)
From 1st January 2003, all aeroplanes registered in the Territory, wherever
they may be, and
all aeroplanes wherever registered when flying in the
Territory, powered by one or more turbine jets or turbine propeller engines
and either having a maximum take-off weight exceeding 15 000 kg or which in
accordance with the certificate of airworthiness
in force in respect
thereof may carry more than 30 passengers
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
J
|
* Unless the appropriate air traffic control unit otherwise permits in
relation to the particular flight and provided that
the aircraft complies
with any instructions which the air traffic control unit may give in the
particular case.
# Provided that non-public transport aircraft flying in Class D and E
airspace shall not be required to be provided with distance
measuring
equipment.
3. The scales of radio and radio navigation
equipment indicated in the foregoing Table shall be as follows:
Scale A
Radio equipment capable of maintaining direct two-way communication with the
appropriate aeronautical radio stations.
Scale B
Radio navigation equipment capable of enabling the aircraft to be navigated
on the intended route including such equipment
as may be prescribed.
Scale C
Radio equipment capable of receiving from the appropriate aeronautical radio
stations meteorological broadcasts relevant to
the intended flight.
Scale D
Radio navigation equipment capable of receiving signals from one or more
aeronautical radio stations on the surface to enable
the aircraft to be
guided to a point from which a visual landing can be made at the aerodrome at
which the aircraft is to land.
Scale E
Secondary surveillance radar equipment.
Scale F
Radio and radio navigation equipment capable of enabling the aircraft to be
navigated along the intended route including:
(i) automatic direction finding
equipment;
(ii) distance measuring equipment; and
(iii) VHF omni-range equipment.
Scale G
Radio navigation equipment capable of enabling the aircraft to make an
approach to landing using the Instrument Landing System.
Scale H
(i) Subject to paragraph (ii),
radio navigation equipment capable of enabling the aircraft to be navigated
on the intended route
including:
(a) automatic direction finding
equipment;
(b) distance measuring equipment;
(c) duplicated VHF omni-range equipment; and
(d) a 75 MHz marker beacon receiver.
(ii)
(a) An aircraft may fly
notwithstanding that it does not carry the equipment specified in this Scale
if it carries alternative
radio navigation equipment or navigational
equipment approved by the Governor in writing in accordance with the
provisions
of article 14(7) of this Order.
(b) Where not more than one item of equipment specified in this Scale is
unserviceable when the aircraft is about to begin
a flight, the aircraft may
nevertheless take off on that flight if:
(aa) it is not reasonably
practicable for the repair or replacement of that item to be carried out
before the beginning of the
flight;
(bb) the aircraft has not made more than one flight since the item was last
serviceable; and
(cc) the commander of the aircraft has satisfied himself that, taking into
account the latest information available as to the
route and aerodrome to be
used (including any planned diversion) and the weather conditions likely to
be encountered, the flight
can be made safely and in accordance with any
relevant requirements of the appropriate air traffic control unit.
Scale J
An airborne collision avoidance system.
4. In this Schedule:
(1) "Automatic direction finding equipment"
means radio navigation equipment which automatically
indicates the bearing of
any radio station transmitting the signals received by such equipment;
(2) "VHF omni-range equipment" means radio
navigation equipment capable of giving visual
indications of bearings of the
aircraft by means of signals received from very high frequency
omni-directional radio ranges;
(3) "Distance measuring equipment" means
radio equipment capable of providing a continuous
indication of the
aircraft's distance from the appropriate aeronautical radio stations;
(4) "Secondary surveillance radar
equipment" means such type of radio equipment as may be
notified as
being capable of (a) replying to an interrogation from secondary surveillance
radar units on the surface and (b)
being operated in accordance with such
instructions as may be given to the aircraft by the appropriate air traffic
control
unit;
(5) "Airborne collision avoidance system"
means an aeroplane system which conforms to requirements
prescribed for the
purpose in regulation 20 in Schedule 14 to this Order; is based on secondary
surveillance radar transponder
signals; operates independently of ground
based equipment and which is designed to provide advice and appropriate
avoidance
manoeuvres to the pilot in relation to other aeroplanes which are
equipped with secondary surveillance radar and are in undue
proximity.
SCHEDULE 6
Article
17
Aircraft, engine and propeller log books
1. Aircraft log book
The following entries shall be included in the aircraft log book:
(a) the name of the constructor,
the type of the aircraft, the number assigned to it by the constructor and
the date of the
construction of the aircraft;
(b) the nationality and registration marks of the aircraft;
(c) the name and address of the operator of the aircraft;
(d) the date of each flight and the duration of the period between take-off
and landing, or, if more than one flight was made
on that day, the number of
flights and the total duration of the periods between take-offs and landings
on that day;
(e) subject to sub-paragraph (h), particulars of all maintenance work carried
out on the aircraft or its equipment;
(f) subject to sub-paragraph (h), particulars of any defects occurring in the
aircraft or in any equipment required to be carried
therein by or under this
Order, and of the action taken to rectify such defects including a reference
to the relevant entries
in the technical log required by article 11(2) and
(3) of this Order;
(g) subject to sub-paragraph (h), particulars of any overhauls, repairs,
replacements and modifications relating to the aircraft
or any such equipment
as aforesaid;
(h) entries shall not be required to be made under sub-paragraphs (e), (f)
and (g) in respect of any engine or variable pitch
propeller.
2. Engine log
book
The following entries shall be included in the engine log book:
(a) the name of the constructor,
the type of the engine, the number assigned to it by the constructor and the
date of the construction
of the engine;
(b) the nationality and registration marks of each aircraft in which the
engine is fitted;
(c) the name and address of the operator of each such aircraft;
(d) either:
(i) the date of each flight and
the duration of the period between take-off and landing or, if more than one
flight was made
on that day, the number of flights and the total duration of
the periods between take-offs and landings on that day; or
(ii) the aggregate duration of periods between take-off and landings for all
flights made by that aircraft since the immediately
preceding occasion that
any maintenance, overhaul, repair, replacement, modification or inspection
was undertaken on the engine;
(e) particulars of all maintenance
work done on the engine;
(f) particulars of any defects occurring in the engine, and of the
rectification of such defects, including a reference to
the relevant entries
in the technical log required by article 11(2) and (3) of this Order;
(g) particulars of all overhauls, repairs, replacements and modifications
relating to the engine or any of its accessories.
3. Variable pitch
propeller log book
The following entries shall be included in the variable pitch propeller log
book:
(a) the name of the constructor,
the type of propeller, the number assigned to it by the constructor and the
date of the construction
of the propeller;
(b) the nationality and registration marks of each aircraft, and the type and
number of each engine, to which the propeller
is fitted;
(c) the name and address of the operator of such aircraft;
(d) either:
(i) the date of each flight and
the duration of the period between take-off and landing or, if more than one
flight was made
on that day, the number of flights and the total duration of
the periods between take-offs and landings on that day; or
(ii) the aggregate duration of periods between take-off and landing for all
flights made by that aircraft since the immediately
preceding occasion that
any maintenance, overhaul, repair, replacement, modification or inspection
was undertaken on the propeller;
(e) particulars of all maintenance
work done on the propeller;
(f) particulars of any defects occurring in the propeller, and of the
rectification of such defects, including a reference
to the relevant entries
in the technical log required by article 11(2) and (3) of this Order;
(g) particulars of any overhauls, repairs, replacements and modifications
relating to the propeller.
SCHEDULE 7
Article
20(4)
Areas specified in connection with the carriage of
flight navigators as members of the flight crews or suitable navigational
equipment on public transport aircraft
The following areas are hereby specified for the purposes of article 20(4) of
this Order:
Area A-Arctic
All that area north of latitude 68 north, but excluding any part thereof
within the area enclosed by rhumb lines joining successively
the following
points:
68 north
latitude 00 east/west longitude
73 north
latitude 15 east longitude
73 north
latitude 30 east longitude
68 north
latitude 45 east longitude
68 north
latitude 00 east/west longitude
Area B-Antarctic
All that area south of latitude 55 south.
Area C-Sahara
All that area enclosed by rhumb lines joining successively the following
points:
30 north
latitude 05 west longitude
24 north
latitude 11 west longitude
14 north
latitude 11 west longitude
14 north
latitude 28 east longitude
24 north
latitude 28 east longitude
28 north
latitude 23 east longitude
30 north
latitude 15 east longitude
30 north
latitude 05 west longitude
Area D-South America
All that area enclosed by rhumb lines joining successively the following
points:
04 north
latitude 72 west longitude
04 north
latitude 60 west longitude
08 south
latitude 42 west longitude
18 south
latitude 54 west longitude
18 south
latitude 60 west longitude
14 south
latitude 72 west longitude
05 south
latitude 76 west longitude
04 north
latitude 72 west longitude
Area E-Pacific Ocean
All that area enclosed by rhumb lines joining successively the following
points:
60 north
latitude 180 east/west longitude
20 north
latitude 128 east longitude
04 north
latitude 128 east longitude
04 north
latitude 180 east/west longitude
55 south
latitude 180 east/west longitude
55 south
latitude 82 west longitude
25 south
latitude 82 west longitude
60 north
latitude 155 west longitude
60 north
latitude 180 east/west longitude
Area F-Australia
All that area enclosed by rhumb lines joining successively the following
points:
18 south
latitude 123 east longitude
30 south
latitude 118 east longitude
30 south
latitude 135 east longitude
18 south
latitude 123 east longitude
Area G-Indian Ocean
All that area enclosed by rhumb lines joining successively the following
points:
35 south
latitude 110 east longitude
55 south
latitude 180 east/west longitude
55 south
latitude 10 east longitude
40 south
latitude 10 east longitude
25 south
latitude 60 east longitude
20 south
latitude 60 east longitude
05 south
latitude 43 east longitude
10 north
latitude 55 east longitude
10 north
latitude 73 east longitude
04 north
latitude 77 east longitude
04 north
latitude 92 east longitude
10 south
latitude 100 east longitude
10 south
latitude 110 east longitude
35 south
latitude 110 east longitude
Area H - North Atlantic Ocean
All that area enclosed by rhumb lines joining successively the following
points:
55 north
latitude 15 west longitude
68 north
latitude 28 west longitude
68 north
latitude 60 west longitude
45 north
latitude 45 west longitude
40 north
latitude 60 west longitude
40 north
latitude 19 west longitude
55 north
latitude 15 west longitude
Area I - South Atlantic Ocean
All that area enclosed by rhumb lines joining successively the following
points:
40 north
latitude 60 west longitude
18 north
latitude 60 west longitude
05 south
latitude 30 west longitude
55 south
latitude 55 west longitude
55 south
latitude 10 east longitude
40 south
latitude 10 east longitude
02 north
latitude 05 east longitude
02 north
latitude 10 west longitude
15 north
latitude 25 west longitude
40 north
latitude 19 west longitude
40 north
latitude 60 west longitude
Area J - Northern Canada
All that area enclosed by rhumb lines joining successively the following
points:
68 north
latitude 130 west longitude
55 north
latitude 115 west longitude
55 north
latitude 70 west longitude
68 north
latitude 60 west longitude
68 north
latitude 130 west longitude
Area K - Northern Asia
All that area enclosed by rhumb lines joining successively the following
points:
68 north
latitude 56 east longitude
68 north
latitude 160 east longitude
50 north
latitude 125 east longitude
50 north
latitude 56 east longitude
68 north
latitude 56 east longitude
Area L - Southern Asia
All that area enclosed by rhumb lines joining successively the following
points:
50 north
latitude 56 east longitude
50 north
latitude 125 east longitude
40 north
latitude 110 east longitude
30 north
latitude 110 east longitude
30 north
latitude 80 east longitude
35 north
latitude 80 east longitude
35 north
latitude 56 east longitude
50 north
latitude 56 east longitude
SCHEDULE 8
Articles
22, 23, 24, and 26
PART A - LICENCES
MINIMUM AGE, PERIOD OF VALIDITY, PRIVILEGES
1. AEROPLANE PILOTS
Private Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes)
Minimum age - 17 years
No maximum period of validity
Privileges:
(1) Subject to paragraph (2), the holder of the
licence shall be entitled to fly as pilot in command
or co-pilot of an
aeroplane of any of the types specified or otherwise falling within an
aircraft rating included in the licence.
(2)
(a) He shall
not fly such an aeroplane for the purpose of public transport or aerial work
save as hereinafter provided:
(i) he may fly
such an aeroplane for the purpose of aerial work which consists of:
(aa) the giving
of instruction in flying, if his licence includes a flying instructor's
rating or an assistant flying instructor's
rating; or
(bb) the conducting of flying tests for the purposes of this Order;
in either case
in an aeroplane owned, or operated under arrangements entered into, by a
flying club of which the person giving
the instruction or conducting the test
and the person receiving the instruction or undergoing the test are both
members;
(ii) he may fly such an aeroplane for the purpose of aerial work which
consists of:
(aa) towing a
glider in flight; or
(bb) a flight for the purpose of dropping of persons by parachute;
in either case
in an aeroplane owned, or operated under arrangements entered into, by a club
of which the holder of the licence
and any person carried in the aircraft or
in any glider towed by the aircraft are members.
(b) He shall
not receive any remuneration for his services as a pilot on a flight save
that if his licence includes a flying
instructor's rating or an assistant
flying instructor's rating by virtue of which he is entitled to give
instruction in flying
microlight aircraft or self-launching motor gliders he
may receive remuneration for the giving of such instruction or the conducting
of such flying tests as are specified in sub-paragraph (a)(i) in a microlight
aircraft or a self-launching motor glider.
(c) He shall not, unless his licence includes an instrument rating
(aeroplanes) or an instrument meteorological conditions
rating (aeroplanes),
fly as pilot in command of such an aeroplane:
(i) on a flight
outside controlled airspace when the flight visibility is less than 3 km;
(ii) on a special VFR flight in a control zone in a flight visibility of less
than 10 km except on a route or in an aerodrome
traffic zone notified for the
purpose of this sub-paragraph; or
(iii) out of sight of the surface.
(d) He shall
not fly as pilot in command of such an aeroplane at night unless his licence
includes a night rating (aeroplanes).
(e) He shall not, unless his licence includes an instrument rating
(aeroplanes), fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of such
an aeroplane flying
in Class A, B or C airspace in circumstances which require compliance with
the Instrument Flight Rules.
(f) He shall not, unless his licence includes an instrument rating
(aeroplanes) or an instrument meteorological conditions
rating (aeroplanes),
fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of such an aeroplane flying in Class D or
E airspace in circumstances
which require compliance with the Instrument
Flight Rules.
(g) He shall not fly as pilot in command of such an aeroplane carrying
passengers unless within the preceding 90 days he has
made three take-offs
and three landings as the sole manipulator of the controls of an aeroplane of
the same type and if such
a flight is to be carried out at night and his
licence does not include an instrument rating (aeroplane) at least one of
those
take-offs and landings shall have been at night.
Basic Commercial Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes)
Minimum age - 18 years
Maximum period of validity - 10 years
Privileges:
(1) The holder of the licence shall be entitled to
exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot's Licence
(Aeroplanes).
(2)
(a) Subject to
sub-paragraph (b), he shall be entitled to fly as pilot in command of an
aeroplane of a type on which he is so
qualified and which is specified in an
aircraft rating included in the licence when the aeroplane is engaged on a
flight for
any purpose whatsoever.
(b)
(i) He shall
not fly such an aeroplane on a flight for the purpose of public transport if
he has less than 400 hours of flying
experience in command of aeroplanes
other than self-launching motor gliders or microlight aircraft.
(ii) He shall not fly such an aeroplane on a flight for the purpose of public
transport if its maximum total weight authorised
exceeds 2,300 kg.
(iii) He shall not fly such an aeroplane on any scheduled journey.
(iv) He shall not fly such an aeroplane on a flight for the purpose of public
transport except a flight beginning and ending
at the same aerodrome and not
extending beyond 25 nautical miles from that aerodrome.
(v) He shall not fly such an aeroplane on a flight for the purpose of public
transport after he attains the age of 60 years
unless the aeroplane is fitted
with dual controls and carries a second pilot who has not attained the age of
60 years and who
holds an appropriate licence under this Order entitling him
to act as pilot in command or co-pilot of that aeroplane.
(vi) He shall not fly such an aeroplane at night, unless his licence includes
a night rating (aeroplanes).
(vii) He shall not, unless his licence includes an instrument rating
(aeroplanes) or an instrument meteorological conditions
rating (aeroplanes),
fly as pilot in command of such an aeroplane:
(aa) on a
flight outside controlled airspace when the flight visibility is less than 3
km;
(bb) on a special VFR flight in a control zone in a flight visibility of less
than 10 km except on a route or in an aerodrome
traffic zone notified for the
purposes of this sub-paragraph; or
(cc) out of sight of the surface.
(viii) He shall
not, unless his licence includes an instrument rating (aeroplanes), fly as
pilot in command or co-pilot of such
an aeroplane flying in Class A, B or C
airspace in circumstances which require compliance with the Instrument Flight
Rules.
(ix) He shall not, unless his licence includes an instrument rating
(aeroplanes) or an instrument meteorological conditions
rating (aeroplanes),
fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of such an aeroplane flying in Class D or
E airspace in circumstances
which require compliance with the Instrument
Flight Rules.
(x) He shall not fly as pilot in command of such an aeroplane carrying
passengers unless within the preceding 90 days he has
made three take-offs
and three landings as the sole manipulator of the controls of an aeroplane of
the same type and if the
flight is to be undertaken at night and his licence
does not include an instrument rating (aeroplanes) at least one of those
take-offs and landings shall have been at night.
(3)
(a) Subject to
sub-paragraph (b), he shall be entitled to fly as pilot in command of an
aeroplane of a type specified in a flying
instructor's rating or an assistant
flying instructor's rating included in the licence on a flight for the
purpose of aerial
work which consists of:
(i) the giving
of instruction in flying; or
(ii) the conducting of flying tests for the purposes of this Order;
in either case
in an aeroplane owned, or operated under arrangements entered into, by a
flying club of which the person giving
the instruction or conducting the test
and the person receiving the instruction or undergoing the test are both
members.
(b) He shall not be entitled to exercise the privileges contained in this
paragraph other than in an aeroplane which he is
entitled to fly as pilot in
command on a private flight, an aerial work flight or a public transport
flight pursuant to the
privileges set out in paragraph (1) or (2) of these
privileges.
(4)
(a) Subject to paragraph
(b), he shall be entitled to fly as co-pilot of any aeroplane of type
specified in an aircraft rating
included in the licence when the aeroplane is
engaged on a flight for any purpose whatsoever.
(b) He shall not be entitled to fly as co-pilot of an aeroplane which is
engaged on a flight for the purpose of public transport
unless he has more
than 400 hours of flying experience as pilot in command of aeroplanes other
than self-launching motor gliders
and microlight aircraft and the aeroplane
is certified for single pilot operation.
(5) He shall not at any time
after he attains the age of 65 years act as pilot in command or co-pilot of
any aeroplane on a flight for the purpose of public transport.
Commercial Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes)
Minimum age - 18 years
Maximum period of validity - 10 years
Privileges:
(1) The holder of the licence shall be entitled to
exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot's Licence
(Aeroplanes) which
includes an instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes) and a
night rating (aeroplanes), and,
shall be entitled to fly as pilot in command
of an aeroplane:
(a) on a
special VFR flight notwithstanding that the flight visibility is less than 3
km;
(b) when the aeroplane is taking off or landing at any place notwithstanding
that the flight visibility below cloud is less
than 1,800 metres.
(2)
(a) Subject to
sub-paragraph (b), he shall be entitled to fly as pilot in command of an
aeroplane of a type specified in Part
1 of the aircraft rating included in
the licence when the aeroplane is engaged on a flight for any purpose
whatsoever.
(b)
(i) He shall
not, unless his licence includes an instrument rating (aeroplanes), fly such
an aeroplane on any scheduled journey.
(ii) He shall not:
(aa) fly as
pilot in command of an aeroplane carrying passengers unless he has carried
out at least three take-offs and three
landings as pilot flying in an
aeroplane of the same type or in a flight simulator approved, for the
purpose, of the aeroplane
type to be used, in the preceding 90 days;
(bb) as co-pilot serve at the flying controls in an aeroplane carrying
passengers during take-off and landing unless he has
served as a pilot at the
controls during take-off and landing in an aeroplane of the same type or in a
flight simulator, approved
for the purpose, of the aeroplane type to be used,
in the preceding 90 days; or
(cc) as the holder of a licence which does not include a valid instrument
rating (aeroplanes) act as pilot in command of an
aeroplane carrying
passengers at night unless during the previous 90 days at least one of the
take-offs and landings required
in sub-paragraph (aa) above has been carried
out at night.
(iii) He shall
not, unless his licence includes an instrument rating (aeroplanes), fly any
such aeroplane of which the maximum
total weight authorised exceeds 2,300 kg
on any flight for the purpose of public transport, except a flight beginning
and ending
at the same aerodrome and not extending beyond 25 nautical miles
from that aerodrome.
(iv) He shall not fly such an aeroplane on a flight for the purpose of public
transport unless it is certificated for single
pilot operation.
(v) He shall not fly such an aeroplane on any flight for the purpose of
public transport after he attains the age of 60 years
unless the aeroplane is
fitted with dual controls and carries a second pilot who has not attained the
age of 60 years and who
holds an appropriate licence under this Order
entitling him to act as pilot in command or co-pilot of that aeroplane.
(vi) He shall not, unless his licence includes an instrument rating
(aeroplanes), fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of such
an aeroplane flying
in Class A, B or C airspace in circumstances which require compliance with
the Instrument Flight Rules.
(3)
(a) Subject to
sub-paragraph (b), he shall be entitled to fly as pilot in command of an
aeroplane of a type specified in a flying
instructor's rating or an assistant
flying instructor's rating included in the licence on a flight for the
purpose of aerial
work which consists of:
(i) the giving
of instruction in flying; or
(ii) the conducting of flying tests for the purposes of this Order;
in either case
in an aeroplane owned, or operated under arrangements entered into, by a
flying club of which the person giving
the instruction or conducting the test
and the person receiving the instruction or undergoing the test are both
members.
(b) He shall not be entitled to exercise privileges contained in this
paragraph other than in an aeroplane which he is entitled
to fly as pilot in
command on a private flight, an aerial work flight or a public transport
flight pursuant to the privileges
set out in paragraph (1) or (2) of these
privileges.
(4) He shall be entitled to
fly as co-pilot of any aeroplane of a type specified in an aircraft rating
included in the licence when the aeroplane is engaged on a flight for any
purpose whatsoever.
(5) He shall not at any time after he attains the age
of 65 years act as pilot in command or co-pilot
of any aeroplane on a flight
for the purpose of public transport.
Airline Transport Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes)
Minimum age - 21 years
Maximum period of validity - 10 years
Privileges:
The holder of the licence shall be entitled to exercise the privileges of a
Commercial Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) except
that sub-paragraph (2)(b)(iv)
of those privileges shall not apply.
2. HELICOPTER AND GYROPLANE PILOTS
Private Pilot's Licence (Helicopters)
Minimum age - 17 years
No maximum period of validity
Privileges:
(1) Subject to paragraph (2), the holder of the
licence shall be entitled to fly as pilot in command
or co-pilot of any
helicopter of a type specified in an aircraft rating included in the licence.
(2)
(a) He shall
not fly such a helicopter for the purpose of public transport or aerial work
other than aerial work which consists
of:
(i) the giving
of instruction in flying if his licence includes a flying instructor's rating
or an assistant flying instructor's
rating; or
(ii) the conducting of flying tests for the purposes of this Order;
in either case
in a helicopter owned, or operated under arrangements entered into, by a
flying club of which the person giving
the instruction or conducting the test
and the person receiving the instruction or undergoing the test are both
members.
(b) He shall not receive any remuneration for his services as a pilot on a
flight other than remuneration for the giving of
such instruction or the
conducting of such flying tests as are specified in sub-paragraph (a).
(c) He shall not fly as pilot in command of such a helicopter at night
unless:
(i) prior to
1st September 2001, his licence includes a night rating (helicopters) and
either also includes an instrument rating
(helicopters) or he has within the
immediately preceding 13 months carried out as pilot in command not less than
5 take-offs
and 5 landings at a time when the depression of the centre of the
sun was not less than 12 below the horizon; or
(ii) on and after 1st September 2001 his licence includes a night rating
(helicopters).
(d) He shall
not unless his licence includes an instrument rating (helicopters) fly as
pilot in command or co-pilot of such
a helicopter flying in Class A, B or C
airspace in circumstances which require compliance with the Instrument Flight
Rules.
(e) On and after 1st September 2001, he shall not fly as pilot in command of
such a helicopter carrying passengers unless:
(i) within the
preceding 90 days he has made three circuits, each to include take-offs and
landings as the sole manipulator
of the controls of a helicopter of the same
type; or
(ii) if the privileges are to be exercised by night and his licence does not
include an instrument rating, within the preceding
90 days he has made three
circuits, each to include take-offs and landings by night as the sole
manipulator of the controls
of a helicopter of the same type.
Private Pilot's Licence (Gyroplanes)
Minimum age - 17 years
No maximum period of validity
Privileges:
(1) Subject to paragraph (2), the holder of the
licence shall be entitled to fly as pilot in command
or co-pilot of any
aeroplane of a type specified in the aircraft rating included in the licence.
(2)
(a) He shall
not fly such a gyroplane for the purpose of public transport or aerial work
other than aerial work which consists
of:
(i) the giving
of instruction in flying if his licence includes a flying instructor's rating
or an assistant flying instructor's
rating; or
(ii) the conducting of flying tests for the purposes of this Order;
in either case
in a gyroplane owned, or operated under arrangements entered into, by a
flying club of which the person giving
the instruction or conducting the test
and the person receiving the instruction or undergoing the test are both
members.
(b) He shall not receive any remuneration for his services as a pilot on a
flight other than remuneration for the giving of
such instruction or the
conducting of such flying tests as are specified in sub-paragraph (a).
(c) He shall not fly as pilot in command of such a gyroplane at night unless
his licence includes a night rating (gyroplanes)
and he has within the
immediately preceding 13 months carried out as pilot in command not less than
5 take-offs and 5 landings
at a time when the depression of the centre of the
sun was not less than 12 below the horizon.
Commercial Pilot's Licence (Helicopters and
Gyroplanes)
Minimum age - 18 years
Maximum period of validity - 10 years
Privileges:
(1) Subject to paragraph (2), the holder of the
licence shall be entitled to exercise the privileges
of a Private Pilot's
Licence (Helicopters) or a Private Pilot's Licence (Gyroplanes) which
includes respectively either a night
rating (helicopters) or a night rating
(gyroplanes).
(2)
(a) Subject to
sub-paragraphs (b) and (c), he shall be entitled to fly as pilot in command
of any helicopter or gyroplane on
which he is so qualified and which is of a
type specified in an aircraft rating included in the licence when the
helicopter
or gyroplane is engaged on a flight for any purpose whatsoever.
(b)
(i) He shall
not, unless his licence includes an instrument rating (helicopters) fly such
a helicopter on any scheduled journey
or on any flight for the purpose of
public transport other than in visual meteorological conditions.
(ii) He shall not fly such a helicopter on a flight for the purpose of public
transport unless it is certificated for single
pilot operation.
(iii) He shall not fly such a helicopter at night prior to 1st September
2001, unless his licence includes an instrument rating
(helicopters), or he
has within the immediately preceding 13 months carried out as pilot in
command not less than five flights,
each consisting of a take-off, a
transition from hover to forward flight, a climb to at least 500 ft and a
landing, at a time
when the depression of the centre of the sun was not less
than 12 degrees below the horizon.
(iv) He shall not fly such a helicopter on any flight for the purpose of
public transport after he attains the age of 60 years
unless the helicopter
is fitted with dual controls and carries a second pilot who has not attained
the age of 60 years and
who holds an appropriate licence under this Order
entitling him to act as pilot in command or co-pilot of that helicopter.
(v) He shall not unless his licence includes an instrument rating (helicopters)
fly as pilot in command of such a helicopter
flying in Class A, B or C
airspace in circumstances which require compliance with the Instrument Flight
Rules.
(vi) On and after 1st September 2001, he shall not:
(aa) fly as
pilot in command of a helicopter carrying passengers unless he has carried
out at least three circuits, each to
include take-offs and landings, as pilot
flying in a helicopter of the same type or a flight simulator of the
helicopter type
to be used, in the preceding 90 days; or
(bb) as the holder of a helicopter licence which does not include a valid
instrument rating (helicopter) act as pilot in command
of a helicopter
carrying passengers at night unless during the previous 90 days at least one
of the take-offs and landings
required in sub-paragraph (aa) above has been
carried out at night.
(c)
(i) He shall
not fly such a gyroplane on a flight for the purpose of public transport
unless it is certificated for single pilot
operation.
(ii) He shall not fly such a gyroplane at night unless he has within the
immediately preceding 13 months carried out as pilot
in command not less than
five take-offs and five landings at a time when the depression of the centre
of the sun was not less
than 12 below the horizon.
(iii) He shall not fly such a gyroplane on any flight for the purpose of
public transport after he attains the age of 60 years
unless the gyroplane is
fitted with dual controls and carries a second pilot who has not attained the
age of 60 years and who
holds an appropriate licence under this Order
entitling him to act as pilot in command or co-pilot of that gyroplane.
(3)
(a) Subject to
sub-paragraph (b) he shall be entitled to fly as co-pilot of any helicopter
of gyroplane of a type specified
in an aircraft rating included in the
licence when the helicopter or gyroplane is engaged on a flight for any
purpose whatsoever.
(b)
(i) He shall
not unless his licence includes an instrument rating (helicopters) fly as
co-pilot of a helicopter flying in Class
A, B or C airspace in circumstances
which require compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules.
(ii) On and after 1st September 2001, he shall not as co-pilot serve at the
flying controls in a helicopter carrying passengers
during take-off and
landing unless he has served as a pilot at the controls during take-off and
landing in a helicopter of
the same type or in a flight simulator of the
helicopter type to be used, in the preceding 90 days.
(iii) He shall not, unless his licence includes an instrument rating
(helicopters), fly as co-pilot of a helicopter on any
scheduled journey or on
any flight for the purpose of public transport other than in visual
meteorological conditions.
(4) He shall not at any time
after he attains the age of 65 years act as pilot in command or co-pilot of
any helicopter or gyroplane on a flight for the purpose of public transport.
Airline Transport Pilot's Licence (Helicopters and Gyroplanes)
Minimum age - 21 years
Maximum period of validity - 10 years
Privileges:
The holder of the licence shall be entitled to exercise the privileges of a
Commercial Pilot's Licence (Helicopters and Gyroplanes)
except that
sub-paragraphs (2)(b)(ii) and (2)(c)(i) of those privileges shall not apply.
3. BALLOON AND AIRSHIP PILOTS
Private Pilot's Licence (Balloons and Airships)
Minimum age - 17 years
No maximum period of validity
Privileges:
(1) Subject to paragraph (2), the holder of the
licence shall be entitled to fly as pilot in command
of any type of balloon
or airship on which he is so qualified and which is specified in an aircraft
rating in the licence and
co-pilot of any type of balloon or airship
specified in such a rating.
(2)
(a) He shall
not fly such a balloon or airship for the purpose of public transport or
aerial work, other than aerial work which
consists of the giving of
instruction in flying or the conducting of flying tests in either case in a
balloon or airship owned,
or operated under arrangements entered into, by a
flying club of which the person giving the instruction or conducting the test
and the person receiving the instruction or undergoing the test are both
members.
(b) He shall not receive any remuneration for his services as a pilot on a
flight other than remuneration for the giving of
such instruction or the
conducting of such flying tests as are specified in sub-paragraph (a).
(c) He shall not fly such a balloon unless he has within the immediately
preceding 13 months carried out as pilot in command
in a free balloon 5
flights each of not less than 5 minutes duration.
Commercial Pilot's Licence (Balloons)
Minimum age - 18 years
Maximum period of validity - 10 years*
Privileges:
(1) The holder of the licence shall be entitled to
exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot's Licence
(Balloons and Airships).
(2)
(a) Subject to
sub-paragraph (b), he shall be entitled to fly, when the balloon is flying
for any purpose whatsoever, as pilot
in command or co-pilot of any type of
balloon specified in the aircraft rating included in the licence.
(b) He shall not act as pilot in command on a flight for the purpose of the
public transport of passengers unless he has within
the immediately preceding
90 days carried out as pilot in command in a free balloon 3 flights each of
not less than 5 minutes
duration.
*In respect of the privileges of a Private Pilot's
licence the maximum period of validity shall be as given for that licence.
Commercial Pilot's Licence (Airships)
Mimimum age - 18 years
Maximum period of validity - 10 years
Privileges:
(1) The holder of the licence shall be entitled to
exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot's Licence
(Balloons and Airships).
(2) He shall be entitled to fly, when the airship is
flying for any purpose whatsoever, as pilot in
command of any type of airship
on which he is so qualified and which is specified in an aircraft rating
included in the licence
and as co-pilot of any type of airship specified in
such a rating.
4. GLIDER PILOTS
Commercial Pilot's Licences (Gliders)
Minimum age - 18 years
Maximum period of validity - 10 years
Privileges:
The holder of the licence shall be entitled to fly for any purpose as pilot
in command or co-pilot of:
(a) any glider
of which the maximum total weight authorised does not exceed 680 kg.
(b) any glider of which the maximum total weight authorised exceeds 680 kg
and which is of a type specified in the rating included
in the licence.
5. OTHER FLIGHT
CREW
Flight Navigator's Licence
Minimum age - 21 years
Maximum period of validity - 10 years
Privileges:
The holder of the licence shall be entitled to act as flight navigator in any
aircraft.
Flight Engineer's Licence
Minimum age - 21 years
Maximum period of validity - 10 years
Privileges:
The holder of the licence shall be entitled to act as flight engineer in any
type of aircraft specified in an aircraft rating
included in the licence.
Flight Radiotelephony Operator's Licence
Minimum age - 16 years
Maximum period of validity - 10 years
Privileges
The holder of the licence shall be entitled to operate radiotelephony
apparatus in any aircraft if the stability of the frequency
radiated by the
transmitter is maintained automatically but shall not be entitled to operate
the transmitter, or to adjust
its frequency, except by the use of external
switching devices.
PART
B -
RATINGS
1. The following ratings may be included in a
pilot's licence granted under Part IV of this Order, and, subject to the
provisions
of this Order and of the licence, the inclusion of a rating in a
licence shall have the consequences respectively specified as
follows:
Aircraft ratings: The licence shall entitle the holder to act as pilot
of aircraft of the types specified in an aircraft rating included in the
licence and different types of aircraft may be specified in respect of different
privileges of a licence.
Instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes)
shall -
(a) subject to
paragraph (b) entitle the holder of a Private Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) or
a Basic Commercial Pilot's Licence
(Aeroplanes) to fly as pilot in command of
an aeroplane without being subject to the restrictions contained respectively
in
paragraphs (2)(c) and (f) of the privileges of the Private Pilot's Licence
(Aeroplanes) or (2)(b)(vii) or (ix) of the privileges
of the Basic Commercial
Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes).
(b) The holder shall not fly:
(i) on a
special VFR flight in a control zone in a flight visibility of less than 3
km;
(ii) when the aeroplane is taking off or landing at any place if the flight
visibility below cloud is less than 1800 metres.
Instrument rating (aeroplanes) shall entitle the holder of the licence to act as
pilot in command or co-pilot of an aeroplane flying in controlled airspace in
circumstances which require compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules.
Instrument rating (helicopters) shall entitle the holder of the
licence to act as pilot in command or co-pilot of a helicopter flying in
controlled airspace
in circumstances which require compliance with the
Instrument Flight Rules.
Night rating (aeroplanes) shall entitle the holder of a Private
Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) or a Basic Commercial Pilot's Licence
(Aeroplanes) to act
as pilot in command of an aeroplane at night.
Night rating (helicopters) shall entitle the holder of a Private
Pilot's Licence (Helicopters) to act as pilot in command of a helicopter at
night.
Night rating (gyroplanes) shall entitle the holder of a Private
Pilot's Licence (Gyroplanes) to act as pilot in command of a gyroplane at
night.
Towing rating (flying machines) shall entitle the holder of the
licence to act as pilot of a flying machine while towing a glider in flight
for the purposes
of public transport or aerial work.
Flying instructor's rating shall entitle the holder of the licence to
give instruction in flying aircraft of such types and classes as may be
specified
in the rating for that purpose.
Assistant flying instructor's rating shall:
(a) subject to
paragraph (b), entitle the holder of the licence to give instruction in
flying aircraft of such types as may
be specified in the rating for that
purpose:
(b)
(i) such
instruction shall only be given under the supervision of a person present
during the take-off and landing at the aerodrome
at which the instruction is
to begin and end and holding a pilot's licence endorsed with a flying
instructor's rating;
(ii) an assistant flying instructor's rating shall not entitle the holder of
the licence to give directions to the person undergoing
instruction in
respect of the performance by that person of:
(aa) his first
solo flight;
(bb) his first solo flight by night;
(cc) his first solo cross-country flight otherwise than by night; or
(dd) his first solo cross-country flight by night.
2. An aircraft
rating included in a flight engineer's licence shall entitle the holder of
the licence to act as flight engineer
only of aircraft of a type specified in
the aircraft rating.
3. For the purposes of this Schedule:
"Solo
flight" means a flight on which the pilot of the aircraft is not
accompanied by a person holding a pilot's licence
granted or rendered valid
under this Order.
"Cross-country
flight" means any flight during the course of which the aircraft is more
than 3 nautical miles from
the aerodrome of departure.
PART C
CERTIFICATE OF TEST OR EXPERIENCE
1.
(a) A certificate of test or a certificate of
experience required by article 23 of this Order shall
not be appropriate to
the functions to be performed on a flight unless it is a certificate
appropriate to the description of
the flight according to the following Table:
|
Case
|
Class of
licence
|
Description
of flight
|
Certificate
required
|
|
A
|
Private
Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes)
|
Any flight
within the privileges of the licence
|
Certificate
of test or certificate of experience
|
|
|
Private
Pilot's Licence (Helicopters)
|
|
|
|
|
Private
Pilot's Licence (Gyroplanes)
|
|
|
|
B
|
Basic
Commercial Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes)
|
Carriage of
passengers on a flight in respect of which the holder of the licence
receives remuneration
|
Certificate
of test
|
|
|
Commercial
Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes)
|
|
|
|
|
Commercial
Pilot's Licence (Helicopters and Gyroplanes)
|
|
|
|
|
Commercial
Pilot's Licence (Balloons)
|
|
|
|
|
Commercial
Pilot's Licence (Gliders)
|
|
|
|
|
Commercial
Pilot's Licence (Airships)
|
|
|
|
|
Airline
Transport Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes)
|
|
|
|
|
Airline
Transport Pilot's Licence (Helicopters and Gyroplanes)
|
|
|
|
C
|
Basic
Commercial Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes)
|
For public
transport
|
Certificate
of test
|
|
|
Commercial
Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes)
|
|
|
|
|
Commercial
Pilot's Licence (Helicopters and Gyroplanes)
|
|
|
|
|
Commercial
Pilot's Licence (Balloons)
|
|
|
|
|
Commercial
Pilot's Licence (Gliders)
|
|
|
|
|
Commercial
Pilot's Licence (Airships)
|
|
|
|
|
Airline
Transport Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes)
|
|
|
|
|
Airline
Transport Pilot's Licence (Helicopters and Gyroplanes)
|
|
|
|
D
|
Basic
Commercial Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes)
|
For aerial
work
|
Certificate
of test or certificate of experience
|
|
|
Commercial
Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes)
|
|
|
|
|
Commercial
Pilot's Licence (Helicopters and Gyroplanes)
|
|
|
|
|
Commercial
Pilot's Licence (Balloons)
|
|
|
|
|
Commercial
Pilot's Licence (Gliders)
|
|
|
|
|
Commercial
Pilot's Licence (Airships)
|
|
|
|
|
Airline
Transport Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes)
|
|
|
|
|
Airline
Transport Pilot's Licence (Helicopters and Gyroplanes)
|
|
|
|
E
|
Basic
Commercial Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes)
|
Any flight
within the privileges of a Private Pilot's Licence
|
Certificate
of test or certificate of experience
|
|
|
Commercial
Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes)
|
|
|
|
|
Commercial
Pilot's Licence (Helicopters and Gyroplanes)
|
|
|
|
|
Commercial
Pilot's Licence (Balloons)
|
|
|
|
|
Commercial
Pilot's Licence (Gliders)
|
|
|
|
|
Commercial
Pilot's Licence (Airships)
|
|
|
|
|
Airline
Transport Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes)
|
|
|
|
|
Airline
Transport Pilot's Licence (Helicopters and Gyroplanes)
|
|
|
|
F
|
Flight
Navigator's Licence
|
Flights to
which article 20(4) of this Order applies
|
Certificate
of experience
|
|
G
|
Flight
Engineer's Licence
|
For public
transport
|
Certificate
of test
|
|
H
|
Flight
Engineer's Licence
|
Any flight
other than for public transport
|
Certificate
of test or Certificate of experience
|
(b) For the purposes of this Part
of this Schedule, references to Cases are references to the Cases indicated
in the first Column
of the Table in paragraph 1(a) of this Part of this
Schedule.
Certificate of test
2. A certificate of test required by article
23 or 24 of this Order shall be signed by a person authorised by the Governor
to
sign certificates of this kind and shall certify the following
particulars:
(a) the functions to which the
certificate relates;
(b) that the person signing the certificate is satisfied that on a date
specified in the certificate the holder of the licence
or personal flying
logbook of which the certificate forms a part, as the case may be, passed an
appropriate test of his ability
to perform the functions to which the
certificate relates;
(c) the type of aircraft or flight simulator in or by means of which the test
was conducted; and
(d) the date on which it was signed.
Nature of test
3. The appropriate test referred to in
paragraph 2 above shall be:
(a) in the case of a test which
entitles the holder of the licence of which the certificate forms part to act
as pilot in command
and/or co-pilot of aircraft of the type specified in the
certificate, a test of the pilot's competence to fly the aircraft as
pilot in
command and/or co-pilot and shall, where the Governor so specifies in respect
of the whole or part of a test, be conducted
in an aircraft in flight or by
means of a flight simulator approved by the Governor;
(b) in the case of a test which entitles the holder of the licence of which
the certificate forms part to act as flight engineer
of aircraft of the type
specified in the certificate, a test of the flight engineer's competence to
perform duties of a flight
engineer in the type of aircraft to be used on the
flight and shall, where the Governor specifies in respect of the whole or
part of the test, be conducted in an aircraft in flight or by means of a
flight simulator approved by the Governor;
(c) in the case of a test which entitles the holder of the licence of which
the certificate forms part to perform the functions
to which an instrument
rating relates, a test of his ability to perform the functions to which the
rating relates and shall,
where the Governor specifies in respect of the
whole or part of the test, be conducted in an aircraft in flight or by means
of a flight simulator approved by the Governor;
(d) in the case of a test which entitles the holder of the licence of which
the certificate forms part to perform the functions
to which a flying
instructor's rating, an assistant flying instructor's rating or an instrument
meteorological conditions rating
relates, a test of his ability to perform
the functions to which the rating relates and shall, where the Governor so
specifies
in respect of the whole or part of the test, be conducted in an
aircraft in flight.
Period of validity of certificate of test
4.
(a)
(i) Subject to sub-paragraph (ii),
a certificate of test required by article 23(1) of this Order in respect of a
Commercial
Pilot's Licence (Balloons) shall not be valid in relation to a
flight made more than 13 months after the date of the test which
it certifies
and, in respect of any other licence, shall not be valid in relation to a
flight made more than 13 months in Cases
A, B, E and H or more than six
months in Cases C, D and G after the date of the test which it certifies.
(ii) in the case of Cases C, D and G, two certificates of test shall together
be deemed to constitute a valid certificate of
test if they certify flying
tests conducted on two occasions within the period of 13 months preceding the
flight on which the
functions are to be performed, such occasions being
separated by an interval of not less than four months, and if both
certificates
are appropriate to those functions.
(b) A certificate of test required
by article 24 of this Order shall not be valid in relation to a flight made
more than 13
months in the case of an instrument rating (aeroplanes), an
instrument rating (helicopters) and an assistant flying instructor's
rating
or more than 25 months in the case of an instrument meteorological conditions
rating (aeroplanes) and a flying instructor's
rating after the date of the
test which it certifies.
Certificate of experience
5. A certificate of experience required by
article 23 of this Order shall be signed by a person authorised by the
Governor to
sign such a certificate and shall certify the following
particulars:
(a) the functions to which the
certificate relates;
(b) in the case of a pilot or flight engineer, that on the date on which the
certificate was signed the holder of the licence
or personal flying log book
of which it forms part, as the case may be, produced his personal flying log
book to the person
signing the certificate and satisfied him that he had
appropriate experience in the capacity to which his licence relates within
the appropriate period specified in paragraph 6 of this Part of this
Schedule;
(c) in the case of a flight navigator, that on the date on which the
certificate was signed the holder of the licence of which
it forms part
produced his navigation logs, charts and workings of astronomical
observations to the person signing the certificate
and satisfied him that he
had appropriate experience in the capacity to which the licence relates
within the appropriate period
specified in paragraph 6 of this Part of this
Schedule;
(d) in the case of a pilot or flight engineer, the type or types of aircraft
in which the experience was gained;
(e) the date on which it was signed.
Period of experience
6. A certificate of experience shall not be
valid unless the experience was gained within the period of 13 months
preceding the
signing of the certificate in the case of Cases A, E, F and H
or six months preceding the signing of the certificate in the case
of Case D.
Period of validity of certificate of experience
7. A certificate of experience in respect of
a Commercial Pilot's Licence (Balloons.) shall not be valid for more than 13
months
after it was signed and in respect of any other licence shall not be
valid for more than six months after it was signed for Case
D nor for more
than 13 months after it was signed for any other case.
SCHEDULE 9
Articles
92(3) and (11)
Air traffic controllers - ratings
1.
(a) Subject to sub-paragraph (b),
the holder of a licence which includes ratings of two or more of the classes
specified in
paragraph 2 of this Schedule shall not at any one time perform
the functions specified in respect of more than one of those ratings.
(b) The functions of any one of the following groups of ratings may be
exercised at the same time:
(i) the aerodrome control rating
and the approach control rating;
(ii) the approach control rating, the approach radar control rating and the
area radar control rating; except that the functions
of the approach control
rating shall not be exercised at the same time as the functions of the
approach radar control rating
if the service being provided under the latter
is a surveillance radar approach terminating at a point less than two
nautical
miles from the point of intersection of the glide path with the
runway.
2. Ratings of the
following classes may be included in an air traffic controller's licence
(other than a student air traffic controller's
licence) granted under article
92 of the Order and, subject to the provision of this Order and of the
licence, the inclusion
of a rating in a licence shall have the consequences
respectively specified as follows:
(1) An Aerodrome Control Rating shall, subject
to article 92(4) of this Order, entitle the holder of the licence to act as
an air traffic controller in the course
of the provision of an aerodrome
control service but not with any type of radar equipment for which a radar control
rating
is required under this paragraph.
(2) An Approach Control Rating shall, subject
to article 92(4) of this Order, entitle the holder of the licence to act as
an air traffic controller in the
course of the provision of an approach
control service but without the aid of any type of radar equipment.
(3) An Approach Radar Control Rating shall,
subject to article 92(4) of this Order, entitle the holder of the licence to
act as an air traffic controller in the
course of the provision of an approach
control service with the aid of any type of surveillance radar or precision
approach
radar equipment for any aircraft which is flying not more than 40
nautical miles from the aerodrome traffic zone of the aerodrome
in respect of
which the service is being provided.
(4) An Area Radar Control Rating shall,
subject to article 92(4) of this Order, entitle the holder of the licence to
act as an air traffic controller in the
course of the provision of an area
control service at a place other than an area control centre with the aid of
any type of
surveillance radar equipment.
(5) An Area Control Centre Rating shall,
subject to article 92(4) of this Order, entitle the holder of the licence to
act as an air traffic controller at an
area control centre in the course of
the provision of an area control service with or without the aid of any type
of surveillance
radar equipment.
SCHEDULE 10
Articles
16(2) and 31
Public transport - operational
requirements
PART
A -
OPERATIONS MANUAL
(a) Information
and instructions relating to the following matters shall be included in the
operations manual referred to in
article 31(2) of this Order:
(i) the number
of the crew to be carried in the aircraft, on each stage of any route to be
flown, and the respective capacities
in which they are to act, and
instructions as to the order and circumstances in which command is to be
assumed by members of
the crew;
(ii) the respective duties of each member of the crew and the other members
of the operating staff;
(iii) the scheme referred to in article 72(1)(c)(i) of this Order;
(iv) such technical particulars concerning the aircraft, its engines and
equipment and concerning the performance of the aircraft
as may be necessary
to enable the flight crew of the aircraft to perform their respective duties;
(v) the manner in which the quantities of fuel and oil to be carried by the
aircraft are to be computed and records of fuel
and oil carried and consumed
on each stage of the route to be flown are to be maintained; the instructions
shall take account
of all circumstances likely to be encountered on the
flight including the possibility of failure of one or more of the aircraft
engines;
(vi) the manner in which the quantity, if any, of oxygen and oxygen equipment
to be carried in the aircraft for the purpose
of complying with Scale L1 or
L2 in Schedule 4 to this Order is to be computed;
(vii) the check system to be followed by the crew of the aircraft prior to
and on take-off, and landing and in an emergency,
so as to ensure that the
operating procedures contained in the operations manual and in the flight
manual or performance schedule
forming part of the relevant certificates of
airworthiness are complied with;
(viii) the circumstances in which a radio watch is to be maintained;
(ix) the circumstances in which oxygen is to be used by the crew of the
aircraft, and by passengers;
(x) subject to paragraph (b), communication, navigational aids, aerodromes,
local regulations, in-flight procedures, approach
and landing procedures and
such other information as the operator may deem necessary for the proper
conduct of flight operations;
the information referred to in this paragraph
shall be contained in a route guide, which may be in the form of a separate
volume;
(xi) the reporting in flight to the notified authorities of meteorological
observations;
(xii) subject to paragraph (b), the minimum altitudes for safe flight on each
stage of the route to be flown and any planned
diversion therefrom such
minimum altitudes being not lower than any which may be applicable under the
law of the Territory
or of the countries whose territory is to be flown over;
(xiii) the particulars referred to in article 38 of this Order;
(xiv) emergency flight procedures, including procedures for the instruction
of passengers in the position and use of emergency
equipment and procedures
to be adopted when the commander of the aircraft becomes aware that another
aircraft or a vessel is
in distress and needs assistance;
(xv) in the case of aircraft intended to fly at an altitude of more than
49,000 ft the procedures for the use of cosmic radiation
detection equipment;
(xvi) the labelling and marking of dangerous goods, the manner in which they
must be loaded on or suspended beneath an aircraft,
the responsibilities of
members of the crew in respect of the carriage of dangerous goods and the
action to be taken in the
event of emergencies arising involving dangerous
goods;
(xvii) such particulars of any permission granted to the operator pursuant to
article 16 of this Order as may be necessary
to enable the commander of the
aircraft to determine whether he can comply with article 43(b)(ii) of this
Order;
(xviii) procedures for the operation of any airborne collision avoidance
system carried on the aircraft;
(xix) a statement of the operator's accident prevention and flight safety
programme and of the operator's safety policy;
(xx) a list of the post holders responsible for ensuring that the operator's
safety policy is fulfilled, showing the duties
of each post holder in
relation to that policy.
(b) In relation
to any flight which is not one of a series of flights between the same two
places it shall be sufficient if,
to the extent that it is not practicable to
comply with sub-paragraphs (x) and (xii), the manual contains such
information
and instructions as will enable the equivalent data to be
ascertained before take-off.
PART
B -
Article 34
CREW TRAINING AND TESTS
1. The training, experience, practice and
periodical tests required under article 34(3) of this Order in the case of
members of
the crew of an aircraft engaged on a flight for the purpose of
public transport shall be as follows:
(1) Crew
Every member of
the crew shall:
(a) have been
tested within the relevant period by or on behalf of the operator as to his
knowledge of the use of the emergency
and life saving equipment required to
be carried in the aircraft on the flight; and
(b) have practised within the relevant period, under the supervision of the
operator or of a person appointed by him for the
purpose, the carrying out of
the duties required of him in case of an emergency occurring to the aircraft,
either in an aircraft
of the type to be used on the flight or in apparatus
approved by the Governor for the purpose and controlled by persons so
approved.
(2) Pilots
(a)
(i) Every pilot
included in the flight crew who is intended by the operator to fly as pilot
in circumstances requiring compliance
with the Instrument Flight Rules shall
within the relevant period have been tested by or on behalf of the operator:
(aa) as to his
competence to perform his duties while executing normal manoeuvres and
procedures in flight, in an aircraft of
the type to be used on the flight,
including the use of the instruments and equipment provided in the aircraft;
(bb) as to his competence to perform his duties in instrument flight
conditions while executing emergency manoeuvres and procedures
in flight, in
an aircraft of the type to be used on the flight, including the use of the
instruments and equipment provided
in the aircraft.
(ii) A pilot's
ability to carry out normal manoeuvres and procedures shall be tested in the
aircraft in flight.
(iii) The other tests required by sub-paragraph (a)(i) may be conducted
either in the aircraft in flight, or under the supervision
of a person
approved by the Governor for the purpose by means of a flight simulator
approved by the Governor under article
26(3) of this Order. The tests
specified in sub-paragraph (a)(i)(bb) when conducted in the aircraft in flight
shall be carried
out either in actual instrument flight conditions or in
instrument flight conditions simulated by means approved by the Governor.
(b) Every pilot
included in the flight crew whose licence does not include an instrument
rating or who, notwithstanding the
inclusion of such a rating in his licence,
is not intended by the operator to fly in circumstances requiring compliance
with
the Instrument Flight Rules, shall within the relevant period have been
tested, by or on behalf of the operator in flight in an
aircraft of the type
to be used on the flight:
(i) as to his
competence to act as pilot thereof, while executing normal manoeuvres and
procedures; and
(ii) as to his competence to act as pilot thereof while executing emergency
manoeuvres and procedures.
(c) Every pilot
included in the flight crew who is seated at the flying control during the
take-off or landing and who is intended
by the operator to fly as pilot in
circumstances requiring compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules shall
within the relevant
period have been tested as to his proficiency in using
instrument approach-to-land systems of the type in use at the aerodrome
of
intended landing and any alternate aerodromes, such test being carried out
either at night in instrument flight conditions
or in instrument flight
conditions simulated by means approved by the Governor or under the
supervision of a person approved
by the Governor for the purpose by means of
a flight simulator approved by the Governor.
(d) In the case of a helicopter, every pilot included in the flight crew
whose licence does not include an instrument rating
but who is intended to
fly at night under visual flight conditions, shall within the relevant period
have been tested, by or
on behalf of the operator, in a helicopter of the
type to be used on the flight:
(i) as to his
competence to act as pilot thereof, while executing normal manoeuvres and
procedures; and
(ii) as to his competence to act as pilot thereof, while executing specified
manoeuvres and procedures in flight in instrument
flight conditions by means
approved by the Governor.
(e) Every pilot
included in the flight crew and who is seated at the flying controls during
take-off or landing shall within
the relevant period have carried out, when
seated at the flying controls not less than three take-offs and three
landings in
aircraft of the type to be used on the flight.
(3) Flight engineers
(a) Every
flight engineer included in the flight crew shall within the relevant period
have been tested by or on behalf of the
operator:
(i) as to his
competence to perform his duties while executing normal procedures in flight,
in an aircraft of the type to be
used on the flight;
(ii) as to his competence to perform his duties while executing emergency
procedures in flight, in an aircraft of the type
to be used on the flight.
(b) A flight
engineer's ability to carry out normal procedures shall be tested in an
aircraft in flight. The other tests required
by this sub-paragraph may be
conducted either in the aircraft in flight, or under the supervision of a
person approved by the
Governor for the purpose by means of a flight
simulator approved by the Governor.
(4) Flight navigators and
flight radiotelephony operators
Every flight
navigator and flight radiotelephony operator whose inclusion in the flight
crew is required under articles 20(4)
and (5) respectively of this Order
shall within the relevant period have been tested by or on behalf of the
operator as to
his competence to perform his duties in conditions corresponding
to those likely to be encountered on the flight:
(a) in the case
of a flight navigator, using equipment of the type to be used in the aircraft
on the flight for purposes of
navigation;
(b) in the case of a flight radiotelephony operator using radio equipment of
the type installed in the aircraft to be used
on the flight, and including a
test of his ability to carry out emergency procedures.
(5) Aircraft Commanders
(a) The pilot
designated as commander of the aircraft for the flight shall within the
relevant period have demonstrated to the
satisfaction of the operator that he
has adequate knowledge of the route to be taken, the aerodromes of take-off
and landing,
and any alternate aerodromes, including in particular his
knowledge of:
(i) the terrain;
(ii) the seasonal meteorological conditions;
(iii) the meteorological, communications and air traffic facilities, services
and procedures;
(iv) the search and rescue procedures; and
(v) the navigational facilities;
relevant to the
route.
(b) In determining whether a pilot's knowledge of the matters referred to in
sub-paragraph (a) is sufficient to render him
competent to perform the duties
of aircraft commander on the flight, the operator shall take into account the
pilot's flying
experience in conjunction with the following:
(i) the
experience of other members of the intended flight crew;
(ii) the influence of terrain and obstructions on departure and approach
procedures at the aerodromes of take-off and intended
landing, and at
alternate aerodromes;
(iii) the similarity of the instrument approach procedures and let-down aids
to those with which the pilot is familiar;
(iv) the dimensions of runways which may be used in the course of the flight
in relation to the performance limits of aircraft
of the type to be used on
the flight;
(v) the reliability of meteorological forecasts and the probability of
difficult meteorological conditions in the areas to
be traversed;
(vi) the adequacy of the information available regarding the aerodrome of
intended landing and any alternate aerodromes;
(vii) the nature of air traffic procedures and the familiarity of the pilot
with such procedures;
(viii) the influence of terrain on route conditions and the extent of the
assistance obtainable en route from navigational
aids and air-to-ground
communication facilities; and
(ix) the extent to which it is possible for the pilot to become familiar with
unusual aerodrome procedures and features of
the route by means of ground
instruction and training devices.
(6) For the purposes of this
paragraph:
(a)
"visual flight conditions" means weather conditions such that the
pilot is able to fly by visual reference to
objects outside the aircraft;
(b) "instrument flight conditions" means weather conditions such
that the pilot is unable to fly by visual reference
to objects outside the
aircraft;
(c) "relevant period" means a period which immediately precedes the
commencement of the flight, being, subject to
sub-paragraph (d), a period:
(i) in the case
of sub-paragraph (2)(e), of three months;
(ii) in the case of sub-paragraphs (2)(a)(i)(bb), (2)(b)(ii), (2)(c),
(2)(d)(ii) and (3)(a)(ii), of six months;
(iii) in the case of sub-paragraphs (1), (2)(a)(i)(aa), (2)(b)(i), (2)(d)(i),
(3)(a)(i), (4) and (5)(a), of 13 months.
(d)
(i) Any pilot
of the aircraft to whom the provisions of sub-paragraphs (2)(a)(i)(bb),
(2)(b)(ii) or (2)(c) and any flight engineer
of the aircraft to whom the
provisions of sub-paragraph (3)(a)(ii) apply shall for the purposes of the
flight be deemed to
have complied with such requirements respectively within
the relevant period if he has qualified to perform his duties in accordance
therewith on two occasions within the period of 13 months immediately
preceding the flight, such occasions being separated
by an interval of not
less than four months.
(ii) The requirements of sub-paragraph (5)(a) shall be deemed to have been
complied with within the relevant period by a pilot
designated as commander
of the aircraft for the flight if, having become qualified so as to act on
flights between the same
places over the same route more than 13 months
before commencement of the flight, he has within the period of 13 months
immediately
preceding the flight flown as pilot of an aircraft between those
places over that route.
2. - (1)
The records required to be maintained by an operator under article 34(4) of
this Order shall be accurate and
up-to-date records so kept as to show, on
any date, in relation to each person who has during the period of two years
immediately
preceding that date flown as a member of the crew of any public
transport aircraft operated by that operator:
(a) the date
and particulars of each test required by this Schedule undergone by that
person during the said period including
the name and qualifications of the
examiner;
(b) the date upon which that person last practised the carrying out of duties
referred to in paragraph 1(1)(b) of this Schedule;
(c) the operator's conclusions based on each such test and practice as to
that person's competence to perform his duties;
(d) the date and particulars of any decision taken by the operator during the
said period in pursuance of paragraph 1(5)(a)
of this Schedule including
particulars of the evidence upon which that decision was based.
(2) The operator shall
whenever called upon to do so by any authorised person produce for the
inspection
of any person so authorised all records referred to in the
preceding sub-paragraph and furnish to any such person all such information
as he may require in connection with any such records and produce for his
inspection all log books, certificates, papers and
other documents,
whatsoever which he may reasonably require to see for the purpose of
determining whether such records are
complete or of verifying the accuracy of
their contents.
(3) The operator shall at the request of any person
in respect of whom he is required to keep records
as aforesaid furnish to
that person, or to any operator of aircraft for the purpose of public
transport by whom that person
may subsequently be employed, particulars of
any qualifications in accordance with this Schedule obtained by such person
whilst
in his service.
PART
C -
Article 33
TRAINING MANUAL
The following information and instructions in relation to the training, experience,
practice and periodical tests required
under article 34(3) of this Order
shall be included in the training manual referred to in article 33(3) of this
Order:
(i) the manner
in which the training, practice and periodical tests required under article
34(3) and specified in Part B of
Schedule 10 to this Order are to be carried
out;
(ii)
(a) the minimum
qualifications and experience which the operator requires of persons
appointed by him to give or to supervise
the said training, practice and
periodical tests;
(b) the type of training, practice and periodical tests which each such
person is appointed to give or to supervise; and
(c) the type of aircraft in respect of which each such person is appointed to
give or to supervise the said training, practice
and periodical tests;
(iii) the
minimum qualifications and experience required for each member of the crew
undergoing the said training, practice
and periodical tests;
(iv) the syllabus for, and specimen forms for recording, the said training,
practice and periodical tests;
(v) the manner in which instrument flight conditions and engine failure are
to be simulated in the aircraft in flight;
(vi) the extent to which the said training and testing is permitted in the
course of flights for the purpose of public transport;
(vii) the use to be made in the said training and testing of apparatus
approved for the purpose by the Governor.
SCHEDULE 11
Articles
76 and 78
Documents to be carried by aircraft registered in
the Territory
On a flight for the purpose of public transport:
Document A, B,
C, D, E, F, H and, if the flight is international air navigation, Documents G
and I.
On a flight for the purpose of aerial work:
Documents A, B,
C, E, F, and, if the flight is international air navigation, Documents G and
I.
On a private flight, being international air
navigation:
Documents A, B,
C, G and I.
On a flight made in accordance with the terms of a
permission granted to the operator pursuant to article 16 of this Order:
Document J.
For the purposes of this Schedule:
"A"
means the licence in force in respect of the aircraft radio station installed
in the aircraft;
"B"
means the certificate of airworthiness in force in respect of the aircraft,
but, with the permission in writing
of the Governor, which may be granted
subject to such conditions as he thinks fit, an aircraft to which article 31
of this
Order applies need not carry the flight manual as part of this
document;
"C"
means the licences of the members of the flight crew of the aircraft;
"D"
means one copy of the load sheet, if any, required by article 35 of this
Order in respect of the flight;
"E"
means one copy of each certificate of maintenance review, if any, in force in
respect of the aircraft;
"F"
means the technical log, if any, in which entries are required to be made
under article 11 of this Order;
"G"
means the certificate of registration in force in respect of the aircraft;
"H"
means those parts of the operations manual, if any, required by article
31(2)(a)(iii) of this Order to be carried
on the flight;
"I"
means a copy of the notified procedures to be followed by the pilot in
command of an intercepted aircraft, and
the notified visual signals for use
by intercepting and intercepted aircraft;
"J"
means the permission, if any, granted in respect of the aircraft pursuant to
article 16 of this Order, but, with
the permission in writing of the
Governor, which may be granted subject to such conditions as he thinks fit an
aircraft to
which article 31 of this Order applies need not carry such a
permission if it carries an operations manual which includes the
particulars
specified at sub-paragraph (xvii) of Part A of Schedule 10 to this Order;
"International
air navigation" means any flight which includes passage over the
territory of any country other than
the Territory.
SCHEDULE 12
Article
122
PENALTIES
PART
A -
PROVISIONS REFERRED TO IN ARTICLE 122(5)
|
Article of
order
|
Subject
matter
|
|
3
|
Aircraft
flying unregistered
|
|
5
|
Aircraft
flying with false or incorrect markings
|
|
10(1)(a)
|
Flight
without appropriate maintenance
|
|
10(1)(b)
|
Flight
without a certificate of maintenance review
|
|
11
|
Failure to
keep a technical log
|
|
12
|
Flight
without a certificate of release to service issued under the Order
|
|
13(7) and (8)
|
Exercise of
privileges of aircraft maintenance engineer's licence whilst unfit
|
|
14
|
Flight
without required equipment
|
|
15
|
Flight
without required radio equipment
|
|
16
|
Minimum
equipment requirements
|
|
17
|
Failure to
keep log books
|
|
18
|
Requirement
to weigh aircraft and keep weight schedule
|
|
20
|
Crew requirement
|
|
21
|
Requirement
for appropriate licence
|
|
23
|
Requirement
for appropriate certificate of test or experience
|
|
24
|
Requirement
for appropriate certificate of test
|
|
25(1)
|
Flight
without valid medical certificate
|
|
25(2)(a)
|
Flight in
unfit condition
|
|
26(1)
|
Prohibition
of flight after failure of test
|
|
29
|
Instruction
in flying without appropriate licence and rating
|
|
31
|
Operations
manual requirement
|
|
32
|
Police
operations manual requirement
|
|
33
|
Training
manual requirement
|
|
34
|
Operator's
responsibilities in connection with crew
|
|
35
|
Requirements
for loading aircraft
|
|
36
|
Operational
restrictions on aircraft
|
|
37
|
Prohibition
on public transport flights at night or in Instrument Meteorological
Conditions by single-engined aeroplanes
registered elsewhere than in the
Territory
|
|
38
|
Aerodrome
operating minima- public transport aircraft registered in the Territory
|
|
39
|
Aerodrome
operating minima- public transport aircraft registered elsewhere than in
the Territory
|
|
40
|
Aerodrome
operating minima-non-public transport aircraft
|
|
41
|
Requirement
for pilot to remain at controls
|
|
43
|
Pre-flight
action by commander of aircraft
|
|
44
|
Requirement
for passenger briefing
|
|
45
|
Additional
duties of commander on flight for public transport of passengers
|
|
46
|
Requirements
for radio station in aircraft to be licensed and for operation of same
|
|
47
|
Requirement
for minimum navigation performance equipment
|
|
48
|
Requirement
for height keeping performance equipment-aircraft registered in the
Territory
|
|
49
|
Requirement
for height keeping performance equipment-aircraft registered elsewhere than
in the Territory
|
|
50
|
Requirement
for area navigation equipment-aircraft registered in the Territory
|
|
51
|
Requirement
for area navigation equipment-aircraft registered elsewhere than in the
Territory
|
|
52
|
Requirement
for an airborne collision avoidance system
|
|
53
|
Use of flight
recording systems and preservation of records
|
|
54
|
Towing of
gliders
|
|
55
|
Towing,
picking up and raising of persons and articles by aircraft
|
|
56
|
Dropping of
articles and animals from aircraft
|
|
57
|
Dropping of
persons
|
|
58
|
Requirement
for aerial application certificate
|
|
61
|
Carriage of
persons in or on any part of an aircraft not designed for that purpose
|
|
62
|
Requirement
for exits and break-in markings
|
|
66
|
Prohibition
of smoking in aircraft
|
|
67
|
Requirement
to obey lawful commands of aircraft commander
|
|
68 (a) and
(b)
|
Acting in a
disruptive manner
|
|
69
|
Prohibition
of stowaways
|
|
70
|
Flying
displays
|
|
72(3)
|
Operator's
obligation to obtain flight time records of flight crew
|
|
73(2)
|
Flight crew
member's obligation to inform operator of flight times
|
|
74
|
Flight time
limitations
|
|
84
|
Breach of the
Rules of the Air
|
|
85
|
Flight in
contravention of restriction of flying regulations
|
|
86
|
Flight by
balloons, kites, airships, gliders and parascending parachutes
|
|
87
|
Flight by
small aircraft
|
|
90
|
Provision of
air traffic services
|
|
91
|
Use of radio
callsigns at aerodromes
|
|
94
|
Requirement
for licensing of air traffic controllers
|
|
99
|
Requirement
for licensing of flight information service officers
|
|
100
|
Requirement
for aerodrome information service manual
|
|
101
|
Requirement
for licensed aerodrome
|
|
103(5)
|
Contravention
of conditions of aerodrome licence
|
|
104
|
Use of
aeronautical radio stations
|
|
105
|
Requirement
to keep aeronautical radio station records
|
|
109
|
Use of
aeronautical lights
|
|
110(1)
|
Prohibition
of dangerous lights
|
|
110(2)
|
Failure to
extinguish or screen dangerous lights
|
|
112(1) and
(3)
|
Management of
aviation fuel at aerodromes
|
|
117 (except
(4))
|
Requirement
to report occurrences
|
|
120
|
Obstruction
of persons performing duties under the Order
|
PART
B -
PROVISIONS REFERRED TO IN ARTICLE 122(6)
|
Article of
order
|
Subject
matter
|
|
6
|
Flight for
the purpose of public transport without an air operator's certificate
|
|
7
|
Flight in the
service of a police authority without a police air operator's certificate
|
|
8
|
Flight
without a certificate of airworthiness
|
|
59
|
Prohibition
of carriage of weapons and munitions of war
|
|
60
|
Prohibition
of carriage of dangerous goods
|
|
63
|
Endangering
safety of aircraft
|
|
64
|
Endangering
safety of persons or property
|
|
65
|
Prohibition
of drunkenness in aircraft
|
|
68 (c)
|
Intentional
interference
|
|
72(1)
|
Operator's
obligation to regulate flight times of flight crew
|
|
72(2)
|
Operator's
obligation not to allow flight by crew in dangerous state of fatigue
|
|
73(1)
|
Crew's
obligation not to fly in dangerous state of fatigue
|
|
75
|
Protection of
air crew from cosmic radiation
|
|
77
|
Keeping and
production of records of exposure to cosmic radiation
|
|
83 (except
(3))
|
Use of false
or unauthorised documents and records
|
|
88
|
Provision of
an air traffic control service without an approval
|
|
96
|
Prohibition
of drunkenness etc. of controllers
|
|
97
|
Controller's
obligation not to act in a dangerous state of fatigue
|
|
112(4)
|
Use of
aviation fuel which is unfit for use in aircraft
|
|
113
|
Restriction
of flights for valuable consideration by aircraft registered elsewhere than
in the Territory
|
|
115
|
Restriction
of flights for aerial photography, aerial survey and aerial work by
aircraft registered elsewhere than in the
Territory
|
|
116
|
Operators' or
commanders' obligations in respect of flights over any foreign country
|
|
117(4)
|
Making false
reports
|
|
118
|
Flight in
contravention of directions not to fly
|
SCHEDULE 13
Article
84
RULES OF THE AIR
SECTION I
INTERPRETATION
Interpretation
1. - (1) In these Rules, unless
the context otherwise requires:
"air
traffic control clearance" means authorisation by an air traffic control
unit for an aircraft to proceed under
conditions specified by that unit;
"anti-collision
light" means:
(a) in relation to rotorcraft a
flashing red light;
(b) in relation to any other aircraft a flashing red or flashing white light;
and in either case showing in all directions for the
purpose of enabling the aircraft to be more readily detected by the pilots
of
distant aircraft;
"ground
visibility" means the horizontal visibility at ground level;
"IFR
flight" means a flight conducted in accordance with the Instrument
Flight Rules in Section VI of these Rules;
"runway"
means an area, whether or not paved, which is provided for the take-off or
landing run of aircraft;
"special
VFR flight" means a flight made at any time in a control zone which is
Class A airspace, or in any other
control zone in Instrument Meteorological
Conditions or at night, in respect of which the appropriate air traffic
control unit
has given permission for the flight to be made in accordance
with special instructions given by that unit instead of in accordance
with
the Instrument Flight Rules and in the course of which flight the aircraft
complies with any instructions given by that
unit and remains clear of cloud
and in sight of the surface;
"VFR
flight" means a flight conducted in accordance with the Visual Flight
Rules in Section V of these Rules.
(2) In these Rules, unless
the context otherwise requires, any reference to:
(a) a numbered rule is a reference
to the rule in these Rules so numbered;
(b) a numbered paragraph or sub-paragraph is a reference to the paragraph or
sub-paragraph so numbered in the rule or paragraph,
as the case may be in
which that reference appears.
SECTION II
GENERAL
Application of Rules to aircraft
2. These Rules, in so far as they are
applicable in relation to aircraft, shall, subject to the provisions of rule
33, apply in
relation to:
(a) all aircraft within the
Territory; and
(b) all aircraft registered in the Territory, wherever they may be.
Misuse of signals and markings
3. - (1) A signal or marking to
which a meaning is given by these Rules, or which is required by these Rules
to be
used in circumstances, or for a purpose therein specified, shall not be
used except with that meaning, or for that purpose.
(2) A person in an aircraft or on an aerodrome or at
any place at which an aircraft is taking off or
landing shall not make any
signal which may be confused with a signal specified in these Rules, and,
except with lawful authority,
shall not make any signal which he knows or
ought reasonably to know to be a signal in use for signalling to or from any
of
Her Majesty's naval, military or air force aircraft.
Reporting hazardous conditions
4. The commander of an aircraft shall, on
meeting with hazardous conditions in the course of a flight, or as soon as
possible
thereafter, send to the appropriate air traffic control unit by the
quickest means available information containing such particulars
of the
hazardous conditions as may be pertinent to the safety of other aircraft.
Low flying
5. - (1) Subject to the provisions
of paragraphs (2) and (3):
(a) an aircraft other than a
helicopter shall not fly over any congested area of a city, town or
settlement below:
(i) such height as would enable
the aircraft to alight clear of the area and without danger to persons or
property on the surface,
in the event of failure of a power unit and if such
an aircraft is towing a banner such height shall be calculated on the basis
that the banner shall not be dropped within the congested area; or
(ii) a height of 1,500 ft above the highest fixed object within 600 metres of
the aircraft:
whichever is the higher;
(b) a helicopter shall not fly below such height as would enable it to alight
without danger to persons or property on the
surface, in the event of failure
of a power unit;
(c) except with the permission in writing of the Governor and in accordance
with any conditions therein specified a helicopter
shall not fly over a
congested area of a city, town or settlement below a height of 1,500 ft above
the highest fixed object
within 600 metres of the helicopter;
(d)
(i) subject to paragraph (ii) an
aircraft shall not fly:
(aa) over, or within 1,000 metres
of, any assembly in the open air of more than 1,000 persons assembled for the
purpose of witnessing
or participating in any organised event, except with
the permission in writing of the Governor and in accordance with any
conditions
therein specified and with the consent in writing of the
organisers of the event; or
(bb) below such height as would enable it to alight clear of the assembly in
the event of the failure of a power unit and if
such an aircraft is towing a
banner such height shall be calculated on the basis that the banner shall not
be dropped within
1,000 metres of the assembly.
(ii) where a person is charged
with an offence under this Order by reason of a contravention of
sub-paragraph (d)(i), it shall
be a good defence to prove that the flight of
the aircraft over, or within 1,000 metres of, the assembly was made at a
reasonable
height and for a reason not connected with the assembly or with
the event which was the occasion for the assembly;
(e) an aircraft shall not fly
closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle or structure.
(2)
(a) The provisions of paragraphs
(1)(a)(ii) and 1(c) shall not apply to an aircraft flying:
(i) on a route notified for the
purposes of this rule; or
(ii) on a special VFR flight;
unless the aircraft is landing or
taking off.
(b) Paragraphs (1)(a)(ii), (1)(c), (1)(d) and (1)(e) shall not apply to an
aircraft flying under and in accordance with the
terms of a police air
operator's certificate.
(c) Paragraphs (1)(d)(i)(aa) and (1)(e) shall not apply to the flight of an
aircraft over or within 1,000 metres of an assembly
of persons gathered for
the purposes of witnessing or participating in an event which consists:
(i) wholly or partly of an
aircraft race or contest if the aircraft is taking part in such race or
contest or is engaged on
a flight arranged by, or made with the consent in
writing of, the organisers of the event;
(ii) wholly or partly of a flying display for which a permission under
article 70 of this Order is required, if the aircraft
is taking part in such
display or is engaged on a flight arranged by or made with the consent of the
organisers of the event
and the flight is made:
(aa) in accordance with the terms
of a permission granted to the flying display director under article 70 of
the Order; and
(bb) in accordance with the conditions of a pilot display authorisation
granted to the pilot under article 70 of this Order;
or
(iii) wholly or principally of a
flying display for which a permission under article 70 of this Order is not
required, if the
aircraft is taking part in such display or is engaged on a
flight arranged by or made with the consent of the organisers of the
event.
(d) Paragraph (1)(e) shall not
apply to:
(i) any aircraft while it is
landing or taking off in accordance with normal aviation practice;
(ii) any glider while it is hill-soaring;
(iii) any aircraft while it is flying in accordance with article 56(3)(f) of
this Order;
(iv) any aircraft while it is flying under and in accordance with the terms
of an aerial application certificate granted to
the operator thereof under
article 58 of this Order; or
(v) any aircraft while it is flying for the purpose of picking up or dropping
tow ropes, banners or similar articles at an
aerodrome.
(3) Nothing in this rule
shall prohibit an aircraft from flying in such a manner as is necessary for
the purpose of saving life.
(4)
(a) Subject to sub-paragraph (b),
nothing in this rule shall prohibit any aircraft from flying in accordance
with normal aviation
practice, for the purpose of taking off from, landing at
or practising approaches to landing at, or checking navigational aids
or
procedures at, a Government or a licensed aerodrome in the Territory or at
any aerodrome in any other country.
(b) The practising of approaches to landing shall be confined to the airspace
customarily used by aircraft when landing or
taking off in accordance with
normal aviation practice at the aerodrome concerned.
(5) Nothing in this rule
shall apply to any captive balloon or kite.
Simulated instrument flight
6. - (1) An aircraft shall not be
flown in simulated instrument flight conditions unless:
(a) the aircraft is fitted with
dual controls which are functioning properly;
(b) an additional pilot (in this rule called a "safety pilot") is
carried in a second control seat of the aircraft
for the purpose of rendering
such assistance as may be necessary to the pilot flying the aircraft; and
(c) if the safety pilot's field of vision is not adequate both forward and to
each side of the aircraft, a third person, being
a competent observer,
occupies a position in the aircraft which from his field of vision makes good
the deficiencies in that
of the safety pilot, and from which he can readily
communicate with the safety pilot.
(2) For the purposes of this
rule the expression "simulated instrument flight" means a flight
during which mechanical or optical devices are used in order to reduce the
field of vision or the range of visibility from
the cockpit of the aircraft.
Practice instrument approaches
7. - (1) Within the Territory an
aircraft shall not carry out instrument approach practice when flying in
Visual Meteorological
Conditions unless:
(a) the appropriate air traffic
control unit has previously been informed that the flight is to be made for
the purpose of instrument
approach practice; and
(b) if the flight is not being carried out in simulated instrument flight
conditions, a competent observer is carried in such
a position in the
aircraft that he has an adequate field of vision and can readily communicate
with the pilot flying the aircraft.
(2) For the purposes of this
rule the expression "simulated instrument flight" shall have the
same meaning as in rule 6.
SECTION III
LIGHTS AND OTHER SIGNALS TO BE SHOWN OR MADE BY
AIRCRAFT
General
8. - (1) For the purposes of this
section of these Rules the horizontal plane of a light shown in an aircraft
means
the plane which would be the horizontal plane passing through the
source of that light, if the aircraft were in level flight.
(2) Where by reason of the physical construction of
an aircraft it is necessary to fit more than one
lamp in order to show a
light required by this section of these Rules, the lamps shall be so fitted
and constructed that, so
far as is reasonably practicable, not more than one
such lamp is visible from any one point outside the aircraft.
(3) Where in these Rules a light is required to show
through specified angles in the horizontal plane,
the lamps giving such light
shall be so constructed and fitted that the light is visible from any point
in any vertical plane
within those angles throughout angles of 90 degrees
above and below the horizontal plane, but, so far as is reasonably
practicable,
through no greater angle, either in the horizontal plane or the
vertical plane.
(4) Where in these Rules a light is required to show
in all directions, the lamps giving such light
shall be so constructed and
fitted that, so far as is reasonably practicable, the light is visible from
any point in the horizontal
plane and on any vertical plane passing through
the source of that light.
Display of lights by aircraft
9. - (1)
(a) By night an aircraft shall
display such of the lights specified in these Rules as may be appropriate to
the circumstances
of the case, and shall not display any other lights which
might obscure or otherwise impair the visibility of, or be mistaken
for, such
lights.
(b) By day an aircraft fitted with an anti-collision light shall display such
a light in flight.
(2) A flying machine on an
aerodrome in the Territory shall:
(a) display by night either the
lights which it would be required to display when flying or the lights
specified in rule 11(2)(c)
unless it is stationary on the apron or part of
the aerodrome provided for the maintenance of aircraft;
(b) subject to paragraph (3), display when stationary on the apron by day or
night with engines running a red anti-collision
light, if fitted.
(3) Notwithstanding the
provisions of this section of these Rules the commander of an aircraft may
switch
off or reduce the intensity of any flashing light fitted to the
aircraft if such a light does or is likely to:
(a) adversely affect the
performance of the duties of any member of the flight crew; or
(b) subject an outside observer to unreasonable dazzle.
Failure of navigation and anti-collision lights
10. - (1) In the Territory, in the
event of the failure of any light which is required by these Rules to be
displayed
at night, if the light cannot be immediately repaired or replaced
the aircraft shall not depart from the aerodrome and, if in
flight, shall
land as soon as in the opinion of the commander of the aircraft it can safely
do so, unless authorised by the
appropriate air traffic control unit to
continue its flight.
(2) In the Territory, in the event of a failure of an
anti-collision light when flying by day, an aircraft
may continue to fly by
day provided that the light is repaired at the earliest practicable
opportunity.
Flying machines
11. - (1) A flying machine when
flying at night shall display lights as follows:
(a) in the case of a flying
machine registered in the Territory having a maximum total weight authorised
of more than 5,700
kg or any other flying machine registered in the Territory
which conforms to a type first issued with a type certificate on or
after 1
January 1991, the system of lights in paragraph (2)(b);
(b) in the case of a flying machine registered in the Territory which
conforms to a type first issued with a type certificate
before 1st January
1991 having a maximum total weight authorised of 5700 kg or less, any one of
the following systems of lights:
(i) that specified in paragraph
(2)(a), or that specified in paragraph (2)(b); or
(ii) that specified in paragraph (2)(d), excluding sub-paragraph (ii);
(c) in the case of any other
flying machine one of the systems of lights specified in paragraph (2).
(2) The systems of lights
referred to in paragraph (1) are as follows:
(a)
(i) a steady green light of at
least five candela showing to the starboard side through an angle of 110
from dead ahead in
the horizontal plane;
(ii) a steady red light of at least five candela showing to the port side
through an angle of 110 from dead ahead in the horizontal
plane; and
(iii) a steady white light of at least three candela showing through angles
of 70 from dead astern to each side in the horizontal
plane;
(b)
(i) the lights specified in
sub-paragraph (a); and
(ii) an anti-collision light;
(c) the lights specified in
sub-paragraph (a), but all being flashing lights flashing together;
(d) the lights specified in sub-paragraph (a), but all being flashing lights
flashing together in alternation with one or both
of the following:
(i) a flashing white light of at
least twenty candela showing in all directions;
(ii) a flashing red light of at least twenty candela showing through angles
of 70 from dead astern to each side in the horizontal
plane.
(3) If the lamp showing
either in red or the green light specified in paragraph (2)(a) is fitted more
than 2 metres from the wing tip, a lamp may, notwithstanding the provisions
of rule 9(1), be fitted at the wing tip to indicate
its position showing a
steady light of the same colour through the same angle.
Gliders
12. A glider while flying at night shall
display either a steady red light of at least five candela, showing in all
directions,
or lights in accordance with rule 11(2) and (3).
Free balloons
13. A free balloon while flying at night
shall display a steady red light of at least five candela showing in all
directions, suspended
not less than 5 metres and not more than 10 metres
below the basket, or if there is no basket, below the lowest part of the
balloon.
Captive balloons and kites
14. - (1) A captive balloon or kite
while flying at night at a height exceeding 60 metres above the surface shall
display
lights as follows:
(a) a group of two steady lights
consisting of a white light placed 4 metres above a red light, both being of
at least five
candela and showing in all directions, the white light being
placed not less than 5 metres or more than 10 metres below the basket,
or if
there is no basket, below the lowest part of the balloon or kite;
(b) on the mooring cable, at intervals of not more than 300 metres measured
from the group of lights referred to in sub-paragraph
(a), groups of two
lights of the colour and power and in the relative positions specified in
that sub-paragraph, and, if the
lowest group of lights is obscured by cloud,
an additional group below the cloud base; and
(c) on the surface, a group of three flashing lights arranged in a horizontal
plane at the apexes of a triangle, approximately
equilateral, each side of
which measures at least 25 metres; one side of the triangle shall be
approximately at right angles
to the horizontal projection of the cable and
shall be delimited by two red lights; the third light shall be a green light
so placed that the triangle encloses the object on the surface to which the
balloon or kite is moored.
(2) A captive balloon while
flying by day at a height exceeding 60 metres above the surface shall have
attached to its mooring cable at intervals of not more than 200 metres
measured from the basket, or, if there is no basket,
from the lowest part of
the balloon, tubular streamers not less than 40 centimetres in diameter and 2
metres in length, and
marked with alternate bands of red and white 50
centimetres wide.
(3) A kite flown in the circumstances referred to in
paragraph (2) shall have attached to its mooring
cable either:
(a) tubular streamers as specified
in paragraph (2), or
(b) at intervals of not more than 100 metres measured from the lowest part of
the kite, streamers not less than 80 centimetres
long and 30 centimetres wide
at their widest point and marked with alternate bands of red and white 10
centimetres wide.
Airships
15. - (1) Except as provided in
paragraph (2), an airship while flying at night shall display the following
lights:
(a) a steady white light of at
least five candela showing through angles of 110 from dead ahead to each
side in the horizontal
plane;
(b) a steady green light of at least five candela showing to the starboard
side through an angle of 110 from dead ahead to
each side in the horizontal
plane;
(c) a steady red light of at least five candela showing to the port side
through an angle of 110 from dead ahead in the horizontal
plane;
(d) a steady white light of at least five candela showing through angles of
70 from dead astern to each side in the horizontal
plane; and
(e) an anti-collision light.
(2)
(a) Subject to sub-paragraph (b),
an airship while flying at night shall display, if it is not under command,
or has voluntarily
stopped its engines, or is being towed, the following
steady lights:
(i) the white lights referred to
in paragraph (1)(a) and (d);
(ii) two red lights, each of at least five candela and showing in all
directions suspended below the control car so that one
is at least 4 metres
above the other and at least 8 metres below the control car; and
(iii) if the airship is making way but not otherwise, the green and red
lights referred to in paragraph (1)(b) and (c).
(b) An airship while picking up
its moorings, notwithstanding that it is not under command, shall display
only the lights specified
in paragraph (1).
(3) An airship, while moored
within the Territory by night, shall display the following steady lights:
(a) when moored to a mooring mast,
at or near the rear a white light of at least five candela showing in all
directions;
(b) when moored otherwise than to a mooring mast:
(i) a white light of at least five
candela showing through angles of 110 from dead ahead to each side in the
horizontal plane;
and
(ii) a white light of at least five candela showing through angles of 70
from dead astern to each side in the horizontal plane.
(4) An airship while flying
by day, if it is not under command, or has voluntarily stopped its engines,
or is being towed, shall display two black balls suspended below the control
car so that one is at least 4 metres above the
other and at least 8 metres
below the control car.
(5) For the purposes of this rule:
(a) an airship shall be deemed not
to be under command when it is unable to execute a manoeuvre which it may be
required to
execute by or under these Rules;
(b) an airship shall be deemed to be making way when it is not moored and is
in motion relative to the air.
SECTION IV
GENERAL FLIGHT RULES
Weather reports and forecasts
16. - (1) Immediately before an
aircraft flies the commander of the aircraft shall examine the current
reports and forecasts
of the weather conditions on the proposed flight path,
being reports and forecasts which it is reasonably practicable for him
to
obtain, in order to determine whether Instrument Meteorological Conditions
prevail or are likely to prevail during any part
of the flight.
(2) An aircraft which is unable to communicate by
radio with an air traffic control unit at the aerodrome
of destination shall
not begin a flight to an aerodrome within a control zone if the information
which it is reasonably practicable
for the commander of the aircraft to
obtain indicates that it will arrive at that aerodrome when the ground
visibility is less
than 10 km or the cloud ceiling is less than 1,500 feet,
unless the commander of the aircraft has obtained from an air traffic
control
unit at that aerodrome permission to enter the aerodrome traffic zone.
Rules for avoiding aerial collisions
17. - (1) General
(a) Notwithstanding that the
flight is being made with air traffic control clearance it shall remain the
duty of the commander
of an aircraft to take all possible measures to ensure
that his aircraft does not collide with any other aircraft.
(b) An aircraft shall not be flown in such proximity to other aircraft as to
create a danger of collision.
(c) Subject to sub-paragraph (g), aircraft shall not fly in formation unless
the commanders of the aircraft have agreed to
do so.
(d) An aircraft which is obliged by these Rules to give away to another
aircraft shall avoid passing over or under the other
aircraft, or crossing
ahead of it, unless passing well clear of it.
(e) Subject to sub-paragraph (g), an aircraft which has the right-of-way
under this rule shall maintain its course and speed.
(f) For the purposes of this rule a glider and a flying machine which is
towing it shall be considered to be a single aircraft
under the command of
the commander of the towing flying machine.
(g) Sub-paragraphs (c) and (e) shall not apply to an aircraft flying under
and in accordance with the terms of a police air
operator's certificate.
(2) Converging
(a) Subject to the provisions of
paragraphs (3) and (4), an aircraft in the air shall give way to other
converging aircraft
as follows:
(i) flying machines shall give way
to airships, gliders and balloons;
(ii) airships shall give way to gliders and balloons;
(iii) gliders shall give way to balloons.
(b)
(i) Subject to the provisions of
sub-paragraphs (a) and (b)(ii), when two aircraft are converging in the air
at approximately
the same altitude, the aircraft which has the other on its
right shall give way.
(ii) Mechanically driven aircraft shall give way to aircraft which are towing
other aircraft or objects.
(3) Approaching head-on
When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so in the air and
there is danger of collision, each shall alter
its course to the right.
(4) Overtaking
(a) Subject to sub-paragraph (b),
an aircraft which is being overtaken in the air shall have the right-of-way
and the overtaking
aircraft, whether climbing, descending or in horizontal
flight, shall keep out of the way of the other aircraft by altering course
to
the right, and shall not cease to keep out of the way of the other aircraft
until that other aircraft has been passed and
is clear, notwithstanding any
change in the relative positions of the two aircraft.
(b) A glider overtaking another glider in the Territory may alter its course
to the right or to the left.
(5) Flight in the
vicinity of an aerodrome
Without prejudice to the provisions of rule 39, a flying machine, glider or
airship while flying in the vicinity of what the
commander of the aircraft
knows or ought reasonably to know to be an aerodrome, or moving on an
aerodrome, shall, unless in
the case of an aerodrome having an air traffic
control unit that unit otherwise authorises:
(a) conform to the pattern of
traffic formed by other aircraft intending to land at that aerodrome, or keep
clear of the airspace
in which the pattern is formed; and
(b) make all turns to the left unless ground signals otherwise indicate.
(6) Order of landing
(a) An aircraft while landing or
on final approach to land shall have the right-of-way over other aircraft in
flight or on the
ground or water.
(b)
(i) Subject to sub-paragraph (ii),
in the case of two or more flying machines, gliders or airships approaching
any place for
the purpose of landing, the aircraft at the lower altitude
shall have the right-of-way, but it shall not cut in front of another
aircraft which is on final approach to land or overtake that aircraft.
(ii)
(aa) When an air traffic control
unit has communicated to any aircraft an order of priority for landing, the
aircraft shall
approach to land in that order.
(bb) When the commander of an aircraft is aware that another aircraft is
making an emergency landing, he shall give way to
that aircraft, and at
night, notwithstanding that he may have received permission to land, shall
not attempt to land until
he has received further permission so to do.
(7) Landing and take-off
(a) A flying machine, glider or
airship shall take off and land in the direction indicated by the ground
signals or, if no such
signals are displayed, into the wind, unless good
aviation practice demands otherwise.
(b) A flying machine or glider shall not land on a runway at an aerodrome if
the runway is not clear of other aircraft unless,
in the case of an aerodrome
having an air traffic control unit, that unit otherwise authorises.
(c) Where take-offs and landings are not confined to a runway:
(i) a flying machine or glider
when landing shall leave clear on its left any aircraft which has landed or
is already landing
or about to take off; if such a flying machine or glider
is about to turn it shall turn to the left after the commander of the
aircraft has satisfied himself that such action will not interfere with other
traffic movements; and
(ii) a flying machine about to take off shall take up position and manoeuvre
in such a way as to leave clear on its left any
aircraft which has already
taken off or is about to take off.
(d) A flying machine after landing
shall move clear of the landing area as soon as it is possible to do so
unless, in the case
of an aerodrome having an air traffic control unit, that
unit otherwise authorises.
Aerobatic manoeuvres
18. An aircraft shall not carry out any
aerobatic manoeuvre:
(a) over the congested area of any
city, town or settlement; or
(b) within controlled airspace except with the consent of the appropriate air
traffic control unit.
Right-hand traffic rule
19. - (1) Subject to paragraph
(2), an aircraft which is flying within the Territory in sight of the ground
and following
a road, railway, canal, or coastline, or any other line of
landmarks, shall keep such line of landmarks to its left.
(2) Paragraph (1) shall not apply to an aircraft
flying within controlled airspace in accordance with
instructions given by
the appropriate air traffic control unit.
Notification of arrival and departure
20. - (1) The commander of an
aircraft who has caused notice of its intended arrival at any aerodrome to be
given to
the air traffic control unit or other authority at that aerodrome
shall ensure that the air traffic control unit or other authority
at that
aerodrome is informed as quickly as possible of any change of intended
destination and any estimated delay in arrival
of 45 minutes or more.
(2) The commander of an aircraft arriving at or
departing from an aerodrome in the Territory shall
take all reasonable steps
to ensure upon landing or prior to departure, as the case may be, that notice
of that event is given
to the person in charge of the aerodrome, or to the
air traffic control unit or aerodrome flight information service unit at the
aerodrome.
(3) Without prejudice to the provisions of rules 27
and 31, before taking off on any flight from an
aerodrome in the Territory
being a flight whose intended destination is more than 40 km from the
aerodrome of departure, the
commander of an aircraft of which the maximum
total weight authorised exceeds 5,700 kg shall cause a flight plan containing
such particulars of the intended flight as may be necessary for search and
rescue purposes to be communicated to the air traffic
control unit notified
for the purpose of this rule.
Flight in Class A airspace
21. - (1) Subject to paragraph
(2), in relation to flights in Visual Meteorological Conditions in Class A
airspace,
the commander of an aircraft shall comply with rules 31 and 32 as
if the flights were IFR flights but shall not elect to continue
the flight in
compliance with the Visual Flight Rules for the purposes of rule 31(4).
(2) Paragraph (1) shall not apply to the commander of
a glider which is flying in Class A airspace
which is notified for the
purpose of this paragraph if the glider is flown in accordance with
conditions such as may also be
notified for the purpose of this paragraph in
respect of that airspace.
Choice of VFR or IFR
22. - (1) Subject to paragraph (2)
and to the provisions of rule 21 an aircraft shall always be flown in
accordance
with the Visual Flight Rules or the Instrument Flight Rules.
(2) In the Territory an aircraft flying at night:
(a) outside a control zone shall
be flown in accordance with the Instrument Flight Rules;
(b) in a control zone shall be flown in accordance with the Instrument Flight
Rules unless it is flying on a special VFR flight.
Speed Limitation
23. - (1) Subject to paragraph
(3), an aircraft shall not fly below flight level 100 at a speed which
according to its
air speed indicator is more than 250 knots unless it is
flying in accordance with the terms of a written permission of the Governor.
(2) The Governor may grant a permission for the
purpose of this rule subject to such conditions as
he thinks fit and either
generally or in respect of any aircraft or class of aircraft.
(3) Paragraph (1) shall not apply to:
(a) flight in Class A airspace;
(b) VFR flight or IFR flight in Class B airspace;
(c) IFR flight in Class C airspace;
(d) VFR flight in Class C airspace or VFR flight or IFR flight in Class D
airspace when authorised by the appropriate air traffic
control unit;
(e) the flight of an aircraft taking part in an exhibition of flying for
which a permission under article 70 of the Order is
required, if the flight
is made in accordance with the terms of a permission granted to the organiser
of the exhibition of
flying under article 70 of the Order, and in accordance
with the conditions of a display authorisation granted to the pilot under
article 70 of the Order; or
(f) the flight of an aircraft flying in accordance with the "A
Conditions" or the "B Conditions" set forth
in Schedule 3 Part
A to this Order.
SECTION V
VISUAL FLIGHT RULES
Visual flight and reported visibility
24. - (1) In relation to flights
within controlled airspace rules 25 and 27 shall be the Visual Flight Rules.
(2) In relation to flights outside controlled
airspace rule 26 shall be the Visual Flight Rules.
(3) For the purposes of an aeroplane taking off from
or approaching to land at an aerodrome within
Class B, C, or D airspace, the
visibility, if any, communicated to the commander of an aeroplane by the
appropriate air traffic
control unit shall be taken to be the flight
visibility for the time being.
Flight within controlled airspace
25. - (1) Within Class B airspace:
(a) an aircraft flying within
Class B airspace at or above flight level 100 shall remain clear of cloud and
in a flight visibility
of at least 8 km;
(b) an aircraft flying within Class B airspace below flight level 100 shall
remain clear of cloud and in a flight visibility
of at least 5 km.
(2) Within Class C, Class D
or Class E airspace:
(a) an aircraft flying within
Class C, Class D or Class E airspace at or above flight level 100 shall
remain at least 1,500
metres horizontally and 1,000 feet vertically away from
cloud and in a flight visibility of at least 8 km;
(b) subject to sub-paragraph (c), an aircraft flying within Class C, Class D
or Class E airspace below flight level 100 shall
remain at least 1,500 metres
horizontally and 1,000 feet vertically away from cloud and in a flight
visibility of at least
5 km;
(c) sub-paragraph (b) shall be deemed to be complied with if:
(i) the aircraft is not a
helicopter and is flying at or below 3,000 feet above mean sea level at a
speed which, according to
its airspeed indicator, is 140 knots or less and it
remains clear of cloud, in sight of the surface and in a flight visibility
of
at least 5 km; or
(ii) the aircraft is a helicopter flying at or below 3,000 feet above mean
sea level and it remains clear of cloud and in sight
of the surface.
Flight outside controlled airspace
26. - (1) An aircraft flying
outside controlled airspace at or above flight level 100 shall remain at
least 1,500 metres
horizontally and 1,000 feet vertically away from cloud and
in a flight visibility of at least 8 km.
(2)
(a) Subject to sub-paragraph (b),
an aircraft flying outside controlled airspace below flight level 100 shall
remain at least
1,500 metres horizontally and 1,000 feet vertically away from
cloud and in a flight visibility of at least 5 km.
(b) Sub-paragraph (a) shall be deemed to be complied with if:
(i) the aircraft is flying at or
below 3,000 feet above mean sea level and remains clear of cloud and in sight
of the surface
and in a flight visibility of at least 5 km;
(ii) the aircraft, other than a helicopter, is flying at or below 3,000 feet
above mean sea level at a speed which according
to its air speed indicator is
140 knots or less and remains clear of cloud and in sight of the surface and
in a flight visibility
of at least 1,500 metres; or
(iii) in the case of a helicopter the helicopter is flying at or below 3,000
feet above mean sea level at a speed, which having
regard to the visibility
is reasonable, and remains clear of cloud and in sight of the surface.
VFR flight plan and air traffic control clearance
27. - (1) Unless otherwise
authorised by the appropriate air traffic control unit, before an aircraft
flies within Class
B, Class C or Class D airspace during the notified hours
of watch of the appropriate air traffic control unit, the commander of
the
aircraft shall cause a flight plan to be communicated to the appropriate air
traffic control unit and shall obtain an air
traffic control clearance to fly
within the said airspace.
(2) The flight plan shall contain such particulars of
the flight as may be necessary to enable the
air traffic control unit to
issue a clearance and for search and rescue purposes.
(3) Without prejudice to paragraph (2), any flight
plan for a flight within Territory reduced vertical
separation minimum
airspace shall state whether or not the aircraft is equipped with height
keeping systems as required by
articles 48 or 49.
(4) Whilst flying within the said airspace during the
notified hours of watch of the appropriate air
traffic control unit the
commander of the aircraft shall:
(a) cause a continuous watch to be
maintained on the notified radio frequency appropriate to the circumstances;
and
(b) comply with any instructions which the appropriate air traffic control
unit may give in a particular case.
(5) Paragraphs (1), (2) and
(3) shall not apply in respect of:
(a) any glider flying or intending
to fly in Class B airspace notified for the purpose of this sub-paragraph;
(b) any glider flying during the day in controlled airspace notified for the
purpose of this sub-paragraph which remains at
least 1,500 metres
horizontally and 1,000 feet vertically away from cloud and in a flight
visibility of at least 8 km; or
(c) any mechanically driven aircraft without radio equipment flying during
the day in controlled airspace notified for the
purposes of this
sub-paragraph which remains at least 1,500 metres horizontally and 1,000 feet
vertically away from cloud and
in a flight visibility of at least 5 km the
commander of which has previously obtained the permission of the appropriate
air
traffic control unit to fly within the said airspace.
SECTION VI
INSTRUMENT FLIGHT RULES
Instrument Flight Rules
28. - (1) In relation to flights
within controlled airspace rules 29, 31 and 32 shall be the Instrument Flight
Rules.
(2) In relation to flights outside controlled
airspace rules 29 and 30 shall be the Instrument Flight
Rules.
Minimum height
29. Without prejudice to the provisions of
rule 5, in order to comply with the Instrument Flight Rules an aircraft shall
not fly
at a height of less than 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within
a distance of 5 nautical miles of the aircraft unless:
(a) it is necessary for the
aircraft to do so in order to take off or land;
(b) the aircraft is flying on a route notified for the purposes of this rule;
(c) the aircraft has been otherwise authorised by the competent authority; or
(d) the aircraft is flying at an altitude not exceeding 3,000 feet above mean
sea level and remains clear of cloud and in sight
of the surface.
Quadrantal rule and semi-circular rule
30. - (1) Subject to paragraph
(2), in order to comply with the Instrument Flight Rules, an aircraft when in
level flight
above 3,000 feet above mean sea level or above the appropriate
transition altitude, whichever is the higher, shall be flown at
a level
appropriate to its magnetic track, in accordance with the appropriate Table
set forth in this rule. The level of flight
shall be measured by an altimeter
set:
(a) in the case of a flight over
the Territory, to a pressure setting of 1013.2 hectopascals; or
(b) in the case of any other flight, according to the system published by the
competent authority in relation to the area over
which the aircraft is
flying.
(2) An aircraft may be flown
at a level other than the level required by paragraph (1) if it is flying
in
conformity with instructions given by an air traffic control unit or in
accordance with notified en-route holding patterns
or in accordance with
holding procedures notified in relation to an aerodrome.
(3) For the purposes of this rule "transition
altitude" means the altitude so notified in
relation to flight over such
area or areas as may be notified.
Table I - Flights at levels below 24,000 feet
|
Magnetic
track
|
Cruising
level
|
|
Less than 90
|
Odd thousands of feet
|
|
90 but less than 180
|
Odd thousands of feet + 500 feet
|
|
180 but less than 270
|
Even thousands of feet
|
|
270 but less than 360
|
Even thousands of feet + 500
feet
|
Table II - Flights at levels above 24,500 feet
|
Magnetic
track
|
Cruising
level
|
|
Less than 180
|
25,000
feet27,000 feet
29,000 feet or higher levels at intervals of 4,000 feet
|
|
180 but less than 360
|
26,000
feet28,000 feet
31,000 feet or higher levels at intervals of 4,000 feet
|
Flight plan and air traffic control clearance
31. - (1) In order to comply with
the Instrument Flight Rules, before an aircraft either takes off from a point
within
any controlled airspace or otherwise flies within any controlled
airspace the commander of the aircraft shall cause a flight plan
to be
communicated to the appropriate air traffic control unit and shall obtain an
air traffic control clearance based on such
flight plan.
(2) The flight plan shall contain such particulars of
the intended flight as may be necessary to enable
the air traffic control
unit to issue an air traffic control clearance, and for search and rescue
purposes.
(3) Without prejudice to paragraph (2), any flight
plan for a flight within Territory reduced vertical
separation minimum
airspace shall state whether or not the aircraft is equipped with height
keeping systems as required by
articles 48 or 49.
(4)
(a) Subject to sub-paragraph (b),
the commander of the aircraft shall fly in conformity with:
(i) the air traffic control
clearance issued for the flight, as amended by any further instructions given
by an air traffic
control unit; and
(ii) the holding and instrument approach procedures notified in relation to
the aerodrome of destination, unless he is otherwise
authorised by the air
traffic control unit there.
(b) The commander of the aircraft
shall not be required to comply with sub-paragraph (a) if:
(i) he is able to fly in uninterrupted
Visual Meteorological Conditions for so long as he remains in controlled
airspace; and
(ii) he has informed the appropriate air traffic control unit of his
intention to continue the flight in compliance with Visual
Flight Rules and
has requested that unit to cancel his flight plan.
(5) If for the purpose of
avoiding immediate danger any departure is made from the provisions of
paragraph
(4) (as is permitted by article 84(3) of this Order) the commander
of the aircraft shall, in addition to causing particulars to
be given in
accordance with article 84(4) of this Order, as soon as possible inform the
appropriate air traffic control unit
of the deviation.
(6) The commander of the aircraft after it has flown
in controlled airspace shall, unless he has requested
the appropriate air
traffic control unit to cancel his flight plan, forthwith inform that unit
when the aircraft lands within
or leaves the controlled airspace.
Position reports
32. In order to comply with the Instrument
Flight Rules the commander of an aircraft in IFR flight who flies in or is
intending
to enter controlled airspace shall report to the appropriate air
traffic control unit the time, position and level of the aircraft
at such
reporting points or at such intervals of time as may be notified for this
purpose or as may be directed by the air
traffic control unit.
SECTION VII
AERODROME TRAFFIC RULES
Application of aerodrome traffic rules
33. The rules in this section of these Rules
which are expressed to apply to flying machines shall also be observed, so
far as
is practicable, in relation to all other aircraft.
Visual signals
34. - (1) Subject to paragraph
(2), the commander of a flying machine on, or in the pattern of traffic at,
an aerodrome
shall observe such visual signals as may be displayed at, or
directed to him from the aerodrome by the authority of the person
in charge
of the aerodrome and shall obey any instructions which may be given to him by
means of such signals.
(2) The commander of such a flying machine shall not
be required to obey the signals referred to in
rule 47 (Marshalling Signals)
if in his opinion it is inadvisable to do so in the interests of safety.
Movement of aircraft on aerodromes
35. An aircraft shall not taxi on the apron
or the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome without the permission of the person
in charge
of the aerodrome or, where the aerodrome has an air traffic control
unit or an aerodrome flight information service unit for the
time being
notified as being on watch, without the permission of that unit.
Access to and movement of persons and vehicles on the aerodrome
36. - (1) A person or vehicle
shall not go onto any part of an aerodrome (not being a part of the aerodrome
which is
a public right of way) without the permission of the person in
charge of that part of the aerodrome, and except in accordance
with any
conditions subject to which that permission may have been granted.
(2) A vehicle or person shall not go or move on the
manoeuvring area of an aerodrome having an air
traffic control unit or
aerodrome flight information service unit without the permission of that
unit, and except in accordance
with any conditions subject to which that
permission may have been granted.
(3) Any permission granted for the purposes of this
rule may be granted either in respect of persons
or vehicles generally, or in
respect of any particular person or vehicle or any class of person or
vehicle.
Right of way on the ground
37. - (1) This rule shall apply to
flying machines and vehicles on any part of a land aerodrome provided for the
use
of aircraft and under the control of the person in charge of the
aerodrome.
(2) Notwithstanding any air traffic control clearance
it shall remain the duty of the commander of
an aircraft to take all possible
measures to ensure that his aircraft does not collide with any other aircraft
or with any
vehicle.
(3)
(a) Flying machines and vehicles
shall give way to aircraft which are taking off or landing.
(b) Vehicles, and flying machines which are not taking off or landing, shall
give way to vehicles towing aircraft.
(c) Vehicles which are not towing aircraft shall give way to aircraft.
(4) Subject to the
provisions of paragraph (3) and of rule 17(7)(c), in case of danger of
collision
between two flying machines:
(a) when the two flying machines
are approaching head-on or approximately so, each shall alter its course to
the right;
(b) when the two flying machines are on converging courses, the one which has
the other on its right shall give way to the
other and shall avoid crossing
ahead of the other unless passing well clear of it;
(c) a flying machine which is being overtaken shall have the right-of-way,
and the overtaking flying machine shall keep out
of the way of the other
flying machine by altering its course to the left until that other flying
machine has been passed and
is clear, notwithstanding any change in the
relative positions of the two flying machines.
(5) Subject to the
provisions of paragraphs (3)(b) a vehicle shall:
(a) overtake another vehicle so
that the other vehicle is on the left of the overtaking vehicle;
(b) keep to the left when passing another vehicle which is approaching
head-on or approximately so.
Launching, picking up and dropping of tow ropes,
etc.
38. - (1) Tow ropes, banners or
similar articles towed by aircraft shall not be launched at an aerodrome
except in accordance
with arrangements made with the air traffic control unit
at the aerodrome or, if there is no such unit, with the person in charge
of
the aerodrome.
(2) Tow ropes, banners or similar articles towed by
aircraft shall not be picked up by or dropped from
aircraft at an aerodrome
except:
(a) in accordance with
arrangements with the air traffic control unit at the aerodrome or, if there
is no such unit, with the
person in charge of the aerodrome; or
(b) in the area designated by the marking described in rule 44(7), and the
ropes, banners or similar articles shall be picked
up and dropped when the
aircraft is flying in the direction appropriate for landing.
Flight within aerodrome traffic zones
39. - (1) Paragraphs (2) and (3)
shall apply only in relation to such of the aerodromes described in Column 1
of the
following Table as are notified for the purposes of this rule and at
such times as are specified in Column 2 thereof.
TABLE
|
Column 1
|
Column 2
|
|
(a)
A government aerodrome
|
at such times as are notified
|
|
(b)
An aerodrome having an air traffic control unit or an aerodrome flight
information service unit
|
during the notified hours of
watch of the air traffic control unit or the aerodrome flight information
service unit
|
|
A licensed aerodrome having a
means of two way radio communication with aircraft
|
during the notified hours of
watch of the air/ground radio station
|
(2) An aircraft shall not fly, take off or land
within the aerodrome traffic zone of an aerodrome to
which this paragraph
applies unless the commander of the aircraft has obtained the permission of
the air traffic control unit
at the aerodrome or, where there is no air
traffic control unit, has obtained from the aerodrome flight information
service
unit at that aerodrome information to enable the flight within the
zone to be conducted with safety or, where there is no air
traffic control unit
nor aerodrome flight information unit, has obtained information from the
air/ground radio station at that
aerodrome to enable the flight to be
conducted with safety.
(3) The commander of an aircraft flying within the
aerodrome traffic zone of an aerodrome to which
this paragraph applies shall:
(a) cause a continuous watch to be
maintained on the appropriate radio frequency notified for communications at
the aerodrome
or, if this is not possible, cause a watch to be kept for such
instructions as may be issued by visual means;
(b) where the aircraft is fitted with means of communication by radio with
the ground, communicate his position and height
to the air traffic control
unit, the aerodrome flight information service unit or the air/ground radio station
at the aerodrome
(as the case may be), on entering the zone and immediately
prior to leaving it.
SECTION VIII
SPECIAL RULES
Use of radio navigation aids
40. - (1) Subject to paragraph
(2), the commander of an aircraft shall not make use of any radio navigation
aid without
complying with such restrictions and appropriate procedures as
may be notified in relation to that aid unless authorised by an
air traffic
control unit.
(2) The commander of an aircraft shall not be
required to comply with this rule if he is required to
comply with rule 31.
SECTION IX
AERODROME SIGNALS AND MARKINGS - VISUAL
AND AURAL SIGNALS
General
41. - (1) Whenever any signal
specified in this section of these Rules is given or displayed, or whenever
any marking
so specified is displayed, by any person in an aircraft, or at an
aerodrome, or at any other place which is being used by aircraft
for landing
or take-off, it shall, when given or displayed in the Territory, have the
meaning assigned to it in this section.
(2) All dimensions other than those in rule 45(6), of
signals or markings specified in this section
of these Rules (but not
distances at which markings must be placed) shall be subject to a tolerance
of 10 per cent, plus or
minus.
42. - (1) When any signal
specified in the following paragraphs of this rule is displayed it shall be
placed in a signals
area, which shall be a square visible from all directions
bordered by a white strip 30 centimetres wide the internal sides measuring
12
metres.
(2) A white landing T, as illustrated in this
paragraph,
Fig. 1
signifies that
aeroplanes and gliders taking off or landing shall do so in a direction
parallel with the shaft of the T and
towards the cross arm, unless otherwise
authorised by the appropriate air traffic control unit.
(3) A white disc 60 centimetres in diameter displayed
alongside the cross arm of the T and in line
with the shaft of the T, as
illustrated in this paragraph,
Fig. 2
signifies that
the direction of landing and take off do not necessarily coincide.
(4) A white dumb-bell, as illustrated in this
paragraph,
Fig. 3
signifies that
movements of aeroplanes and gliders on the ground shall be confined to paved,
metalled or similar hard surfaces.
(5) A white dumb-bell as described in (4) but with a
black strip 60 centimetres wide across each disc
at right angles to the shaft
of the dumb-bell, as illustrated in this paragraph,
Fig. 4
signifies that
aeroplanes and gliders taking off or landing shall do so on a runway but that
movement on the ground is not confined
to paved, metalled or similar hard
surfaces.
(6) A red and yellow striped arrow, as illustrated in
this paragraph,
Fig. 5
the shaft of
which is one metre wide placed along the whole or a total of 11 metres of two
adjacent sides of the signals area
and pointing in a clockwise direction
signifies that a right-hand circuit is in force.
(7) A red panel 3 metres square with a yellow strip
along one diagonal 50 centimetres wide, as illustrated
in this paragraph,
Fig. 6
signifies that
the state of the manoeuvring area is poor and pilots must exercise special
care when landing.
(8) A red panel 3 metres square with a yellow strip,
50 centimetres wide, along each diagonal, as illustrated
in this paragraph,
Fig. 7
signifies that
the aerodrome is unsafe for the movement of aircraft and that landing on the
aerodrome is prohibited.
(9) A white letter H, as illustrated in this
paragraph,
Fig. 8
signifies that
helicopters shall take off and land only within the area designated by the
marking specified in rule 44(5).
(10) A red letter L displayed on the dumb-bell
specified in paragraphs (4) and (5), as illustrated
in this paragraph,
Fig. 9
signifies that
light aircraft are permitted to take off and land either on a runway or on
the area designated by the marking
specified in rule 44(6).
(11) A white double cross, as illustrated in this
paragraph,
Fig. 10
signifies that
glider flying is in progress.
Markings for paved runways and taxiways
43. - (1) Two or more white
crosses, as illustrated in this paragraph,
Fig. 11
displayed on a
runway or taxiway, with each arm of each cross at an angle of 45 to the
centre line of the runway, at intervals
of not more than 300 metres signify
that the section of the runway or taxiway marked by them is unfit for the
movement of aircraft.
(2)
(a) Two yellow broken lines and two continuous lines, as illustrated
in this paragraph,
Fig. 12a
signify the
holding position closest to the runway beyond which no part of a flying
machine or vehicle shall project in the
direction of the runway without
permission from the air traffic control unit at the aerodrome during the
notified hours of
watch of that unit. Outside the notified hours of watch of
that unit or where there is no air traffic control unit at the aerodrome
the
markings signify the position closest to the runway beyond which no part of a
flying machine or vehicle shall project in
the direction of the runway when
the flying machine or vehicle is required by virtue of rule 37(3)(a) of these
Rules to give
way to aircraft which are taking off from or landing on that
runway.
(b) A yellow marking, as illustrated in this paragraph,
Fig. 12b
signifies a
holding position other than that closest to the runway beyond which no part
of a flying machine or vehicle shall
project in the direction of the runway
without permission from the air traffic control unit at the aerodrome during
the notified
hours of watch of that unit. Outside the notified hours of watch
of that unit or where there is no air traffic control unit at
the aerodrome
the marking may be disregarded.
(3) Orange and white markers, as illustrated in this
paragraph,
Fig. 13
spaced no more
than 15 metres apart, signify the boundary of that part of a paved runway,
taxiway or apron which is unfit for
the movement of aircraft.
Markings on unpaved manoeuvring areas
44. - (1) Markers with orange and
white stripes of an equal width of 50 centimetres, with an orange stripe at
each end,
as illustrated in this paragraph,
Fig. 14
alternating
with flags 60 centimetres square showing equal orange and white triangular
areas, indicate the boundary of an area
unfit for the movement of aircraft
and one or more white crosses as specified in rule 43(1) indicate the said
area. The distance
between any two successive orange and white flags shall
not exceed 90 metres.
(2) Striped markers, as specified in paragraph (1),
spaced not more than 45 metres apart, indicate
the boundary of an aerodrome.
(3) On structures, markers with orange and white
vertical stripes, of an equal width of 50 centimetres,
with an orange stripe
at each end, as illustrated in this paragraph,
Fig. 15
spaced not more
than 45 metres apart, indicate the boundary of an aerodrome. The pattern of
the marker shall be visible from
inside and outside the aerodrome and the
marker shall be affixed not more than 15 centimetres from the top of the
structure.
(4) White flat rectangular markers 3 metres long and
1 metre wide at intervals not exceeding 90 metres,
flush with the surface of
the unpaved runway or stopway, as the case may be, indicate the boundary of
an unpaved runway or
of a stopway.
(5) A white letter H, as illustrated in this
paragraph,
Fig. 16
indicates an
area which shall be used only for the taking off and landing of helicopters.
(6) A white letter L, as illustrated in this
paragraph,
Fig. 17
indicates a
part of the manoeuvring area which shall be used only for the taking off and
landing of light aircraft.
(7) A yellow cross with two arms each 6 metres long
by 1 metre wide at right angles, indicates that
tow ropes, banners and
similar articles towed by aircraft shall only be picked up and dropped in the
area in which the cross
is placed.
(8) A white double cross, as illustrated in this
paragraph,
Fig. 18
indicates an
area which shall be used only for the taking off and landing of gliders.
(9) A white landing T as specified in rule 42(2)
placed at the left-hand side of the runway when viewed
from the direction of
landing indicates the runway to be used, and at an aerodrome with no runway it
indicates the direction
for take off and landing.
Signals visible from the ground
45. - (1) A black ball 60
centimetres in diameter suspended from a mast signifies that the directions
of take off and
landing are not necessarily the same.
(2) A checkered flag or board, 1.2 metres by 90
centimetres containing twelve equal squares, 4 horizontally
and 3 vertically,
coloured red and yellow alternately, signifies that aircraft may move on the
manoeuvring area and apron only
in accordance with the permission of the air
traffic control unit at the aerodrome.
(3) Two red balls 60 centimetres in diameter,
disposed vertically one above the other, 60 centimetres
apart and suspended
from a mast, signify that glider flying is in progress at the aerodrome.
(4) Black arabic numerals in two-figure groups and,
where parallel runways are provided the letter
or letters L (left), LC (left
centre), C (centre), RC (right centre) and R (right), phased against a yellow
background, indicate
the direction for take off or the runway in use.
(5) A black letter C against a yellow background, as
illustrated in this paragraph, indicates the position
at which a pilot can
report to the air traffic control unit or to the person in charge of the
aerodrome.
Fig. 19
(6)
A rectangular green flag not less than 60 centimetres square and not more
than 66 centimetres square
flown from a mast indicates that a right-hand
circuit is in force.
Lights and pyrotechnic signals for control of aerodrome traffic
46. Each signal described in the first column
of Table A, when directed from an aerodrome to an aircraft or to a vehicle,
or from
an aircraft, shall have the meanings respectively appearing in the
second, third and fourth columns of that Table opposite the
description of
the signal.
Table A - Meaning of Lights and Pyrotechnic Signals
|
|
From an aerodrome
|
|
|
Characteristic and colour of light beam or
pyrotechnic
|
to an aircraft in flight
|
to an aircraft or vehicle on the aerodrome
|
From an aircraft in flight to an aerodrome
|
|
(a) Continuous red light.
|
Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
|
Stop.
|
-
|
|
(b) Red pyrotechnic light, or
red flare.
|
Do not land; wait for permission.
|
-
|
Immediate assistance is requested.
|
|
(c) Red flashes.
|
Do not land; aerodrome not available for landing.
|
Move clear of landing area.
|
-
|
|
(d) Green flashes.
|
Return to aerodrome; wait for permission to land.
|
To an aircraft: you may move on the manoeuvring area and apron.To a
vehicle: you may move on the manoeuvring area.
|
-
|
|
(e) Continuous green light.
|
You may land.
|
You make take off (not applicable to a vehicle).
|
-
|
|
(f) Continuous green light, or
green flashes, or green pyrotechnic light.
|
-
|
-
|
By night: may I land?By day: may I land in direction different from
that indicated by landing T?
|
|
(g) White flashes.
|
Land at this aerodrome after receiving continuous green light, and
then, after receiving green flashes, proceed to the apron.
|
Return to starting point on the aerodrome.
|
I am compelled to land.
|
|
(h) White pyrotechnic lights.
Switching on and off the navigation lights.Switching on and off the landing
lights.
|
-
|
-
|
I am compelled to land.
|
Marshalling signals (from a marshaller to an aircraft)
47. Each of the signals for the guidance of
aircraft manoeuvring on or off the ground, described in the first column of
Table B,
paragraphs (a) to (x) shall, in the Territory, have the meanings set
forth in the second column of that Table opposite the description
of the
signal. By day any such signals shall be given by hand or by circular bats
and by night by torches or illuminated wands
(save that the signals described
at paragraphs (v) and (w) shall not be given at night).
Table B Meaning of marshalling signals (rule 47)
|
Description of signal
|
Meaning of signal
|
In daylight
|
By night
|
|
(a) Right or left arm down, the
other arm moved across body and extended to indicate position of the other
marshaller.
|
Proceed under guidance of another marshaller.
|
|
|
|
(b) Arms repeatedly moved upward
and backward, beckoning onward.
|
Move ahead.
|
|
|
|
(c) Right arm down, left arm
repeatedly moved upward and backward. The speed of arm movement indicates
the rate of turn.
|
Open up starboard engine or turn to port.
|
|
|
|
(d) Left arm down, the right arm
repeatedly moved upward and backward. The speed of arm movement indicates
the rate of turn.
|
Open up port engine or turn to starboard.
|
|
|
|
(e) Arms repeatedly crossed
above the head. The speed of arm movement indicates the urgency of the
stop.
|
Stop.
|
|
|
|
(f) A circular motion of the
right hand at head level, with the left arm pointing to the appropriate
engine.
|
Start engine.
|
|
|
|
(g) Arms extended, the palms
facing inwards, then swung from the extended position inwards.
|
Chocks inserted.
|
|
|
|
(h) Arms down, the palms facing
outwards, then swung outwards.
|
Chocks away.
|
|
|
|
(j) Either arm and hand placed
level with the chest, then moved laterally with the palm downwards.
|
Cut engines.
|
|
|
|
(k) Arms placed down, with the
palms towards the ground, then moved up and down several times.
|
Slow down.
|
|
|
|
(l) Arms placed down, with the
palms towards the ground, then either the right or left arm moved up and
down indicating
that the motors on the left or right side, as the case may
be, should be slowed down.
|
Slow down engines on indicated side.
|
|
|
|
(m) Arms placed above the head
in a vertical position.
|
This bay.
|
|
|
|
(n) The right arm raised at the
elbow, with the arm facing forward.
|
All clear: marshalling finished.
|
|
|
|
(o) Arms placed horizontally
sideways.
|
Hover.
|
|
|
|
(p) Arms placed down and crossed
in front of the body.
|
Land.
|
|
|
|
(q) Arms placed horizontally
sideways with the palms up beckoning upwards. The speed of arm movement
indicates the rate
of ascent.
|
Move upwards.
|
|
|
|
(r) Arms placed horizontally
sideways with the palms towards the ground beckoning downwards. The speed
of arm movement indicates
the rate of descent.
|
Move downwards.
|
|
|
|
(s) Either arm placed
horizontally sideways, then the other arm moved in front of the body to
that side, in the direction
of the movement, indicating that the helicopter
should move horizontally to the left or right side, as the case may be;
repeated several times.
|
Move horizontally.
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
(t) Arms placed down, the palms
facing forward, then repeatedly swept up and down to shoulder level.
|
Move back.
|
|
|
|
(u) Left arm extended
horizontally forward, then right arm making a horizontal slicing movement
below left arm.
|
Release load.
|
|
|
|
(v) Raise arm, with fist
clenched, horizontally in front of body, then extend fingers.
|
Release brakes.
|
|
Shall not be given at night.
|
|
Raise arm and hand, with fingers
extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist.
|
Engage brakes.
|
|
Shall not be given at night.
|
|
(w) Left hand overhead with the
number of fingers extended, to indicate the number of the engine to be
started, and circular
motion of right hand at head level.
|
Start engine(s).
|
|
Shall not be given at night.
|
|
(x) Point left arm down, move
right arm down from overhead, vertical position to horizontal forward
position, repeating
right arm movement.
|
Back aircraft's tail to starboard.
|
|
|
|
Point right arm down, move left
arm down from overhead, vertical position to horizontal forward position,
repeating left
arm movement.
|
Back aircraft's tail to port.
|
|
|
Marshalling
signals (from a pilot of an aircraft to a marshaller)
48. The following signals made by a pilot in
an aircraft to a marshaller on the ground shall respectively have the
following meanings:
|
Description of signal
|
Meaning of signal
|
|
(a) Raise arm and hand with
fingers extended horizontally in front of face, then clench fist.
|
Brakes engaged.
|
|
(b) Raise arm with fist clenched
horizontally in front of face, then extend fingers.
|
Brakes released.
|
|
(c) Arms extended palms facing
outwards, move hands inwards to cross in front of face.
|
Insert chocks.
|
|
(d) Hands crossed in front of
face, palms facing outwards, move arms outwards.
|
Remove chocks.
|
|
(e) Raise the number of fingers
on one hand indicating the number of the engine to be started. For this
purpose the aircraft
engines shall be numbered in relation to the
marshaller facing the aircraft, from his right to his left, for example,
No.
1 engine shall be the port outer engine, No. 2 engine shall be the port
inner engine, No. 3 engine shall be the starboard inner
engine and No. 4
engine shall be the starboard outer engine.
|
Ready to start engines.
|
Distress, urgency and safety signals
49. - (1) The following signals,
given either together or separately before the sending of a message, signify
that an
aircraft is threatened by grave and imminent danger and requests
immediate assistance:
(a) by radiotelephony:
the spoken word "MAYDAY";
(b) by visual signalling:
(i) the signal SOS ( ... - - - ... );
(ii) a succession of pyrotechnic lights fired at short intervals each showing
a single red light;
(iii) a parachute flare showing a red light;
(c) by sound signalling other than radiotelephony:
(i) the signal SOS ( ... - - - ... );
(ii) a continuous sounding with any sound apparatus.
(2)
The following signals, given either together or separately, before the
sending of a message, signify
that the commander of the aircraft wishes to give
notice of difficulties which compel it to land but that he does not require
immediate assistance:
(a) a succession of white pyrotechnic lights;
(b) the repeated switching on and off of the aircraft landing lights;
(c) the repeated switching on and off of its navigation lights, in such a
manner as to be clearly distinguishable from the
flashing navigation lights
described in rule 11.
(3)
The following signals, given either together or separately, indicate that the
commander of the aircraft
has an urgent message to transmit concerning the
safety of a ship, aircraft, vehicle or other property or of a person on board
or within sight of the aircraft from which the signal is given:
(a) by radiotelephony:
the repeated spoken word, "PAN PAN";
(b) by visual signalling:
the signal XXX ( - .. - - .. - - .. - );
(c) by sound signalling other than radiotelephony:
the signal XXX ( - .. - - .. - - .. - ).
SCHEDULE 14
Articles
10(3), 12(5), and (8),15, 34(1), 35(4), 36(1),47(1), 48(1), 108, 117(1) and
Schedule 5 paragraph 4(5)
AIR NAVIGATION (GENERAL) REGULATIONS
1. In these Regulations any reference to:
(a) a numbered article is a
reference to the article in this Order so numbered;
(b) a numbered regulation is to the regulation in these Regulations so
numbered;
(c) a numbered paragraph, or numbered or lettered sub-paragraph, is a
reference to the paragraph or sub-paragraph so numbered
or lettered in the
regulation or paragraph, as the case may be, in which that reference appears;
(d) a numbered condition is a reference to the paragraph so numbered in the
regulation or Annex, as the case may be, in which
that reference appears.
Load Sheets
2. - (1) Every load sheet required
by article 35(4) shall contain the following particulars -
(a) the nationality mark of the
aircraft to which the load sheet relates, and the registration mark assigned
to that aircraft
by the Governor;
(b) particulars of the flight to which the load sheet relates;
(c) the total weight of the aircraft as loaded for that flight;
(d) the weights of the several items from which the total weight of the
aircraft, as so loaded, has been calculated including
in particular the
weight of the aircraft prepared for service and the respective total weights
of the crew (unless included
in the weight of the aircraft prepared for
service), passengers, baggage and cargo intended to be carried on the flight;
(e) the manner in which the load is distributed and the resulting position of
the centre of gravity of the aircraft which may
be given approximately if and
to the extent that the relevant certificate of airworthiness so permits,
and shall include at the foot or end of the load
sheet a certificate, signed by the person referred to in article 35(1) as
responsible
for the loading of the aircraft, that the aircraft has been
loaded in accordance with the written instructions furnished to him
by the
operator of the aircraft pursuant to the said article 35(1).
(2) (a) Subject to sub-paragraph (b), for the purpose
of calculating the total weight of the aircraft
the respective total weights
of the passengers and crew together with their hand baggage entered in the
load sheet shall be
computed from the actual weight of each person and their
hand baggage and for that purpose each person and their hand baggage
shall be
separately weighed:
(b) Sub-paragraph (a) shall be
deemed to be complied with if, subject to the provisions of paragraph (4),
the total weights
of the passengers and crew together with their hand baggage
are calculated at not less than the appropriate weights shown in Tables
1 or
2 and the load sheet bears a notation to that effect.
TABLE 1
|
|
Passenger
seats available
|
|
|
|
20 or more
|
30 or more
|
|
|
Male
|
Female
|
all adult
|
|
Passengers on all flights except
holiday charters
|
88 kg
|
70 kg
|
84 kg
|
|
Passengers on holiday charters
|
83 kg
|
69 kg
|
76 kg
|
|
Children (between 2-12 years) or
infants under 2 years of age if occupying a separate seat
|
35 kg
|
35 kg
|
|
|
Infants under 2 years of age if
sharing a seat with an adult
|
0 kg
|
0 kg
|
|
|
Flight crew
|
85 kg
|
85 kg
|
|
|
Cabin crew
|
75 kg
|
75 kg
|
|
(c) Where the total number of passenger seats available on an aircraft is 20
or more, the weights for males and females in
Table 1 are applicable. As an
alternative, where the total number of passenger seats available is 30 or
more, the all adult
weights in Table 1 may be used for passengers over the
age of 12 years.
(d) For the purpose of Table 1, "holiday charter" means a flight by
an aircraft for the carriage of passengers each
of whom is carried pursuant
to an agreement which provides for carriage by air to a place outside the
Territory and back from
that place, or from another place, to the Territory
(whether or not on the same aircraft) and for accommodation at a place
outside the Territory.
(e) Where the total number of passenger seats available on an aircraft is 19
or less the weights in Table 2 are applicable.
TABLE 2
|
|
Passenger
seats available
|
|
|
|
1-5
|
6-9
|
10-19
|
|
Male passengers
|
104 kg
|
96 kg
|
92 kg
|
|
Female passengers
|
86 kg
|
78 kg
|
74 kg
|
|
Children (between 2-12 years) or
infants under 2 years of age if occupying a separate seat
|
35 kg
|
35 kg
|
35 kg
|
|
Infants under 2 years of age if
sharing a seat with an adult
|
0 kg
|
0 kg
|
0 kg
|
|
Flight crew
|
85 kg
|
85 kg
|
85 kg
|
|
Cabin crew
|
75 kg
|
75 kg
|
75 kg
|
(f) On flights where no hand baggage is carried or where such hand baggage is
accounted for separately, 6 kg may be deducted
from the weight of passengers
over 12 years of age when using Table 2.
(g) Where any immersion suit is worn or carried by a passenger or crew
member, 3 kg shall be added to the appropriate weight
shown in Table 1 or 2
in each such case.
(3)
(a) Subject to
sub-paragraph (b), for the purpose of calculating the total weight of the
aircraft the respective total weights
of the hold baggage and cargo entered
in the load sheet shall be computed from the actual weight of each piece of
baggage,
cargo or cargo container and for that purpose each piece or
container shall be separately weighed.
(b) Sub-paragraph (a) shall be deemed to be complied with in the case of an
aircraft where the total number of passenger seats
available is 20 or more,
if, subject to the provisions of paragraph (4), the total weights of the hold
baggage are calculated
at not less than the weights shown in Table 3 and the
load sheet bears a notation to that effect -
TABLE 3
|
Journey made
by aircraft
|
Hold baggage
per piece
|
|
Domestic
|
11 kg
|
|
European
|
13 kg
|
|
Intercontinental
|
15 kg
|
(c) For the purposes of this paragraph:
(i) A journey
made by an aircraft shall be treated as domestic if it is confined within
such an area as may be prescribed.
(ii) A journey made by an aircraft, not being a domestic journey, shall be
treated as European if it is confined within an
area enclosed by rhumb lines
joining successively the following points -
|
N7200.00
|
E04500.00
|
N4000.00
|
E04500.00
|
|
N3500.00
|
E03700.00
|
N3000.00
|
E03700.00
|
|
N3000.00
|
W00600.00
|
N2700.00
|
W00900.00
|
|
N2700.00
|
W03000.00
|
N6700.00
|
W03000.00
|
|
N7200.00
|
W01000.00
|
N7200.00
|
E04500.00
|
(iii) A journey made by an aircraft shall be treated as intercontinental if
it is neither domestic nor European.
(4)
(a) If it
appears to the person supervising the loading of the aircraft that:
(i) any person
and his hand baggage to be carried exceeds the weights set out in Tables 1 or
2;
(ii) where paragraph (2)(f) applies, any passenger to be carried exceeds the
weights set out in Table 2 as adjusted in accordance
with that paragraph; or
(iii) any hold baggage to be carried exceeds the weights set out in Table 3:
he shall, if he
considers it necessary in the interests of the safety of the aircraft, or if
the Governor has so directed in
the particular case, require any such person
and his hand baggage, passenger or hold baggage, as the case may be, to be
weighed
for the purpose of the entry to be made in the load sheet.
(b) If any person and his hand baggage, passenger or any hold baggage has
been weighed pursuant to sub-paragraph (a), the weights
entered in the load
sheet shall take account of the actual weight of that person and his hand
baggage, that passenger or that
hold baggage, as the case may be, or of the
weight determined in accordance with the sub-paragraphs (2)(b) or (3)(b)
whichever
weight shall be the greater.
Weight and performance: general
provisions
3. - (1) The assessment of the ability of
an aeroplane to comply with the requirements
of regulations 4 to10 inclusive
and of a helicopter to comply with the requirements of regulations 11 to 13
inclusive (relating
in either case to weight, performance and flights in
specified meteorological conditions or at night) shall be based on the
specified information as to its performance, or, in the case of an aeroplane
in respect of which there is in force under this
Order a certificate of airworthiness
which does not include a performance group classification, the assessment may
be based
on the best information available to the commander of the aircraft,
insofar as the relevant information is not specified.
(2) In assessing the ability of an aeroplane to
comply with condition (7) in the Annex hereto, conditions
(4) and (5) of
regulation 5, and sub-paragraphs (a)(ii) and (b) of condition (2) in
regulation 10, account may be taken of
any reduction of the weight of the
aeroplane which may be achieved after the failure of a power unit by such
jettisoning of
fuel as is feasible and prudent in the circumstances of the
flight and in accordance with the flight manual included in the certificate
of airworthiness relating to the aircraft.
(3) In regulations 3 to 13, and in the Annex hereto,
unless the context otherwise requires -
"specified"
in relation to an aircraft means specified in, or ascertainable by reference
to -
(a) the
certificate of airworthiness in force under this Order in respect of that
aircraft; or
(b) the flight manual or performance schedule included in that certificate,
or other document, whatever its title, incorporated
by reference in that
certificate;
"the
emergency distance available" means the distance from the point on the
surface of the aerodrome at which the
aeroplane can commence its take off run
to the nearest point in the direction of take off at which the aeroplane
cannot roll
over the surface of the aerodrome and be brought to rest in an
emergency without the risk of accident;
"the
landing distance available" means the distance from the point on the
surface of the aerodrome above which the
aeroplane can commence its landing,
having regard to the obstructions in its approach path, to the nearest point
in the direction
of landing at which the surface of the aerodrome is
incapable of bearing the weight of the aeroplane under normal operating
conditions or at which there is an obstacle capable of affecting the safety
of the aeroplane;
"the take
off distance available" means either the distance from the point on the
surface of the aerodrome at which
the aeroplane can commence its take off run
to the nearest obstacle in the direction of take off projecting above the
surface
of the aerodrome and capable of affecting the safety of the
aeroplane, or one and one half times the take off run available, whichever
is
the less;
"the take
off run available" means the distance from the point on the surface of
the aerodrome at which the aeroplane
can commence its take off run to the
nearest point in the direction of take off at which the surface of the
aerodrome is incapable
of bearing the weight of the aeroplane under normal
operating conditions.
(4) For
the purposes of regulations 3 to 13 inclusive and of the Annex
hereto -
(a) the weight
of the aircraft at the commencement of the take off run or of the take off
shall be taken to be its gross weight
including everything and everyone
carried in or on it at the commencement of the take off run or of the take
off;
(b) the landing weight of the aircraft shall be taken to be the weight of the
aircraft at the estimated time of landing allowing
for the weight of the fuel
and oil expected to be used on the flight to the aerodrome at which it is
intended to land or alternate
aerodrome, as the case may be;
(c) where any distance referred to in paragraph (3) has been declared in
respect of any aerodrome by the authority responsible
for regulating air
navigation over the territory of the Contracting State in which the aerodrome
is situated, and in the case
of an aerodrome in the Territory, notified, that
distance shall be deemed to be the relevant distance.
(5)
Nothing in regulations 3 to 13 inclusive, shall apply to any aircraft flying
solely for the purpose
of training persons to perform duties in aircraft.
Weight and performance of public transport aeroplanes having no performance
group classification in their certificates of airworthiness
4. For the purposes of article 36(1), an aeroplane
registered in the Territory, in respect of which
there is in force under this
Order a certificate of airworthiness which does not include a performance
group classification,
shall not fly for the purpose of public transport
unless the weight of aeroplane at the commencement of the take off run is such
that such of the conditions in the Annex hereto as apply to that aircraft are
satisfied.
Weight and performance of public transport aeroplanes classified as
aeroplanes of performance group A or performance group
B in their
certificates of airworthiness
5. For the purposes of article 36(1), an aeroplane
registered in the Territory in respect of which
there is in force under this
Order a certificate of airworthiness in which the aeroplane is designated as
being of performance
group A or performance group B shall not fly for the
purpose of public transport unless the weight of the aeroplane at the
commencement of the take off run is such that the following conditions are
satisfied -
(1) That weight does not exceed the maximum take off
weight specified for the altitude and the air
temperature at the aerodrome at
which the take off is to be made.
(2) The take off run, take off distance and the
emergency distance respectively required for take off,
specified as being
appropriate to -
(a) the weight
of the aeroplane at the commencement of the take off run;
(b) the altitude at the aerodrome;
(c) the air temperature at the aerodrome;
(d) the condition of the surface of the runway from which the take off will
be made;
(e) the slope of the surface of the aerodrome in the direction of take off
over the take off run available, the take off distance
available and the
emergency distance available, respectively; and
(f) not more than 50 per cent. of the reported wind component opposite to the
direction of take off or not less than 150 per
cent. of the reported wind
component in the direction of take off,
do not exceed the take off run,
the take off distance and the emergency distance available, respectively, at
the aerodrome at
which the take off is to be made; in ascertaining the
emergency distance required, the point at which the pilot is assumed to
decide to discontinue the take off shall not be nearer to the start of the
take off run than the point at which, in ascertaining
the take off run required
and the take off distance required, he is assumed to decide to continue the
take off, in the event
of power unit failure.
(3)
(a) The net
take off flight path with one power unit inoperative, specified as being
appropriate to -
(i) the weight
of the aeroplane at the commencement of the take off run;
(ii) the altitude at the aerodrome;
(iii) the air temperature at the aerodrome; and
(iv) not more than 50 per cent. of the reported wind component opposite to
the direction of take off or not less than 150 per
cent. of the reported wind
component in the direction of take off,
and plotted
from a point 35 feet or 50 feet, as appropriate, above the end of the take
off distance required at the aerodrome
at which the take off is to be made to
a height of 1,500 feet above the aerodrome, shows that the aeroplane will
clear any
obstacle in its path by a vertical interval of at least 35 feet;
and if it is intended that the aeroplane shall change its direction
of flight
by more than 15 before reaching 1,500 feet the vertical interval shall not
be less than 50 feet during the change
of direction.
(b) For the purpose of sub-paragraph (a) an obstacle shall be deemed to be in
the path of the aeroplane if the distance from
the obstacle to the nearest
point on the ground below the intended line of flight of the aeroplane does
not exceed -
(i) a distance
of 60 metres plus half the wing span of the aeroplane plus one eighth of the
distance from such point to the
end of the take off distance available
measured along the intended line of flight of the aeroplane; or
(ii) 900 metres,
whichever is
the less.
(c) In assessing the ability of the aeroplane to satisfy the condition, it
shall not be assumed to make a change of direction
of a radius less than the
specified radius of steady turn.
(4)
(a) Subject to
sub-paragraph (b), the aeroplane will, in the meteorological conditions
expected for the flight in the event
of any one power unit becoming
inoperative at any point on its route or on any planned diversion therefrom and
with the other
power unit or units operating within the maximum continuous
power conditions specified, be capable of continuing the flight, clearing
by
a vertical interval of at least 2,000 feet obstacles within 10 nautical miles
either side of the intended track, to an aerodrome
at which it can comply
with condition (7) relating to an alternate aerodrome, and on arrival over
such aerodrome the gradient
of the specified net flight path with one power
unit inoperative shall not be less than zero at 1,500 feet above the
aerodrome;
and in assessing the ability of the aeroplane to satisfy this
condition it shall not be assumed to be capable of flying at an
altitude
exceeding the specified maximum permissible altitude for power unit
restarting.
(b) Where the operator of the aeroplane is satisfied, taking into account the
navigation aids which can be made use of by the
aeroplane on the route, that
the commander of the aeroplane will be able to maintain his intended track on
that route within
a margin of five nautical miles, the foregoing provisions
of this paragraph shall have effect as if five nautical miles were
substituted for 10 nautical miles.
(5) (a)
Subject to sub-paragraph (b), in the case of an aeroplane having three or
more power units,
it will, in the meteorological conditions expected for the
flight, in the event of any two power units becoming inoperative at
any point
along the route or on any planned diversion therefrom more than 90 minutes
flying time in still air at the all power
units operating economical cruise
speed from the nearest aerodrome at which it can comply with condition (7),
relating to an
alternate aerodrome, be capable of continuing the flight with
all other power units operating within the specified maximum continuous
power
conditions, clearing by a vertical interval of at least 2,000 feet obstacles
within 10 nautical miles either side of
the intended track to such an
aerodrome, and on arrival over such an aerodrome the gradient of the
specified net flight path
with two power units inoperative shall not be less
than zero at 1,500 feet above the aerodrome; and in assessing the ability of
the aeroplane to satisfy this condition it shall not be assumed to be capable
of flying at an altitude exceeding the specified
maximum permissible altitude
for power unit restarting.
(b) Where the
operator of the aeroplane is satisfied, taking into account the navigation
aids which can be made use of by the
aeroplane on the route, that the
commander of the aeroplane will be able to maintain his intended track on
that route within
a margin of five nautical miles, the foregoing provisions
of this paragraph shall have effect as if five nautical miles were
substituted for 10 nautical miles; or
(c) In the case of an aeroplane having two power units and a maximum total
weight authorised which exceeds 5,700kg and which
is not limited by its
certificate of airworthiness to the carriage of less than 20 passengers, it
will, in the meteorological
conditions expected for the flight, at any point
along the route or on any planned diversion therefrom, not be more than 60
minutes flying time at the normal one engine inoperative cruise speed in
still air from the nearest aerodrome at which it can
comply with condition
(7), relating to an alternate aerodome, unless it is flying under and in
accordance with the terms of
any written permission granted by the Governor
to the operator under this regulation; or
(d) In the case of an aeroplane having two power units and a maximum total
weight authorised of 5,700 kg or less or in the
case of an aeroplane having
two power units and a maximum total weight authorised of more than 5,700 kg
but which is limited
by its certificate of airworthiness to the carriage of
less than 20 passengers the aeroplane will, in the meteorological conditions
expected for the flight, not be more than 90 minutes flying time in still air
at the all power units operating economical cruise
speed from the nearest
aerodrome at which it can comply with condition (7), relating to an alternate
aerodrome.
(6) The
landing weight of the aeroplane will not exceed the maximum landing weight
specified for the
altitude and the expected air temperature for the estimated
time of landing at the aerodrome at which it is intended to land and
at any
alternate aerodrome.
(7) (a) Subject to sub-paragraph (b),
(i) In the case
of a turbine-jet powered aeroplane, the landing distance required does not
exceed at the aerodrome at which
it is intended to land or at any alternate
aerodrome, as the case may be, the landing distance available on:
(aa) the most suitable runway for a landing in still air conditions, and
(bb) the runway that may be required for landing because of the forecast wind
conditions.
(ii) In the
case of an aeroplane powered by turbine propeller or piston engines, the
landing distances required, respectively
specified as being appropriate to
aerodromes of destination and alternate aerodromes, do not exceed at the
aerodrome at which
it is intended to land or at any alternate aerodrome, as
the case may be, the landing distance available on -
(aa) the most
suitable runway for a landing in still air conditions, and
(bb) the runway that may be required for landing because of the forecast wind
conditions.
(b) If an
alternate aerodrome is designated in the flight plan, the specified landing
distance required may be that appropriate
to an alternate aerodrome when
assessing the ability of the aeroplane to satisfy this condition at the
aerodrome of destination.
(c) For the purposes of sub-paragraph (a) the landing distance required shall
be that specified as being appropriate to -
(i) the landing
weight;
(ii) the altitude of the aerodrome;
(iii) the temperature in the specified international standard atmosphere
appropriate to the altitude at the aerodrome;
(iv)
(aa) a level
surface in the case of runways usable in both directions; or
(bb) the average slope of the runway in the case of runways usable in only
one direction; and
(v)
(aa) still air
conditions in the case of the most suitable runway for a landing in still air
conditions; and
(bb) not more than 50 per cent. of the forecast wind component opposite to
the direction of landing or not less than 150 per
cent. of the forecast wind
component in the direction of landing in the case of the runway that may be
required for landing
because of the forecast wind conditions.
Weight and performance of public
transport aeroplanes classified as aeroplanes of performance group C in their
certificates
of airworthiness
6. For the purposes of article 36(1), an aeroplane
registered in the Territory in respect of which
there is in force under this
Order a certificate of airworthiness in which the aeroplane is designated as
being of performance
group C shall not fly for the purpose of public
transport unless the weight of the aeroplane at the commencement of the take
off run is such that the following conditions are satisfied -
(1) That weight does not exceed the maximum take off
weight specified for the altitude and the air
temperature at the aerodrome at
which the take off is to be made.
(2) The take off run required and the take off
distance required, specified as being appropriate to: -
(a) the weight
of the aeroplane at the commencement of the take off run;
(b) the altitude at the aerodrome;
(c) the air temperature at the aerodrome;
(d) the average slope of the surface of the aerodrome in the direction of
take off over the emergency distance available; and
(e) not more than 50 per cent. of the reported wind component opposite to the
direction of take off or not less than 150 per
cent. of the reported wind
component in the direction of take off, do not exceed the take off run
available and the emergency
distance available, respectively, at the
aerodrome at which the take off is to be made.
(3) (a) Subject
to condition (4), the net take off flight path with all power units operating
specified
as being appropriate to -
(i) the weight
of the aeroplane at the commencement of the take off run;
(ii) the altitude of the aerodrome;
(iii) the air temperature at the aerodrome; and
(iv) not more than 50 per cent. of the reported wind component opposite to
the direction of the take off or not less than 150
per cent. of the reported
wind component in the direction of take off;
and plotted
from a point 50 feet above the end of the take off distance required at the
aerodrome at which the take off is to
be made to a height of 1,500 feet above
the aerodrome shows that the aeroplane will clear any obstacle in its path by
a vertical
interval of not less than 35 feet; and if it is intended that the
aeroplane shall change its direction of flight by more than
15 before
reaching 1,500 feet the vertical interval shall be not less than 50 feet
during the change of direction.
(b) For the purpose of sub-paragraph (a) an obstacle shall be deemed to be in
the path of the aeroplane if the distance from
the obstacle to the nearest
point on the ground below the intended line of flight of the aeroplane does
not exceed 75 metres.
(c) In assessing the ability of the aeroplane to satisfy this condition, it
shall not be assumed to make a change of direction
of a radius less than the
specified radius of steady turn.
(4)
(a) In the case
of an aeroplane which is intended to be flown for any period before reaching
a height of 1,500 feet above the
aerodrome from which the take off is to be
made in conditions which will not ensure that any obstacles can be located by
means
of visual observation, the net take off flight path with one power unit
inoperative specified as being appropriate to the factors
contained in
sub-paragraphs (a)(i) to (iv) of condition (3), and plotted from the point of
the net take off flight path with
all power units operating specified as
being appropriate to those factors at which in the meteorological conditions
expected
for the flight the loss of visual reference would occur, shows that
the aeroplane will clear by a vertical interval of not less
than 35 feet any
obstacle in its path; and if it is intended that the aeroplane shall change
its direction of flight by more
than 15 before reaching 1,500 feet the
vertical interval shall not be less than 50 feet during the change of
direction.
(b) For the purpose of sub-paragraph (a) an obstacle shall be deemed to be in
the path of the aeroplane if the distance from
the obstacle to the nearest
point on the ground below the intended line of flight of the aeroplane does
not exceed -
(i) 75 metre
plus one-eighth of the distance from such point to the end of the emergency
distance available measured along the
intended line of flight of the
aeroplane; or
(ii) 900 metres,
whichever is
the less.
(c) In assessing the ability of the aeroplane to satisfy this condition it
shall not be assumed to make a change of direction
of a radius of less than
the specified radius of steady turn.
(5) The
aeroplane at any time after it reaches a height of 1,500 feet above the
aerodrome from which
the take off is made will, in the meteorological
conditions expected for the flight, in the event of any one power unit
becoming
inoperative at any point on its route or on any planned diversion
therefrom, and with the other power unit or power units operating
within the
specified maximum continuous power conditions, be capable of continuing the
flight at altitudes not less than the
relevant minimum altitude for safe
flight stated in, or calculated from the information contained in, the
operations manual
relating to the aeroplane to a point 1,500 feet above an
aerodrome at which a safe landing can be made and after arrival at that
point
be capable of maintaining that height: in assessing the ability of the
aeroplane to satisfy this condition it shall not
be assumed to be capable of
flying at any point on its route at an altitude exceeding the performance
ceiling, with all power
units operating, specified as being appropriate to
its estimated weight at that point.
(6) The landing weight of the aeroplane will not
exceed the maximum landing weight specified for the
altitude and the expected
air temperature for the estimated time of landing at the aerodrome at which
it is intended to land
and at any alternate aerodrome.
(7) Subject to condition (8), the distance required
by the aeroplane to land from a height of 50 feet
otherwise than in
accordance with specified data for short field landing does not, at the
aerodrome at which it is intended
to land and at any alternate aerodrome,
exceed 70 per cent. of the landing distance available on the most suitable
runway for
a landing in still air conditions, and on the runway that may be
required for landing because of the forecast wind conditions;
and for the
purposes of this condition the distance required to land from a height of 50
feet shall be taken to be that specified
as being appropriate to:
(a) the landing
weight;
(b) the altitude at the aerodrome;
(c) the temperature in the specified international standard atmosphere
appropriate to the altitude at the aerodrome;
(d)
(i) the level
surface in the case of runways usable in both directions; or
(ii) the average slope of the runway in the case of runways usable in only
one direction; and
(e)
(i) still air
conditions in the case of the most suitable runway for landing in still air
conditions; and
(ii) not more than 50 per cent. of the forecast wind component opposite to
the direction of landing or not less than 150 per
cent. of the forecast wind
component in the direction of landing in the case of the runway that may be
required for landing
because of the forecast wind conditions.
(8) (a)
Subject to sub-paragraph (b), as an alternative to condition (7), the
distance required by the
aeroplane, with all power units operating or with
one power unit inoperative, to land in accordance with specified data for
short field landing, does not at the aerodrome of intended destination and at
any alternate aerodrome exceed the landing distance
available and on the
runway that may be required for landing because of the forecast wind
conditions; and for the purposes
of this condition the distance required to
land from the appropriate height shall be taken to be that specified as being
appropriate
to the factors set forth in such-paragraphs (a) to (e) or
condition (7) and the appropriate height shall be:
(i) for a
landing with all power units operating-any height between 30 and 50 feet in
the Territory, and 50 feet elsewhere;
and
(ii) for a landing with one power unit inoperative-50 feet in the Territory
and elsewhere.
(b) (i) If the
specified distance required to land with one power unit inoperative from a
height of 50 feet at the aerodrome
of intended destination exceeds the
landing distance available, it shall be sufficient compliance with
sub-paragraph (ii) if
an alternate aerodrome which has available the
specified landing distance required to land with one power unit inoperative
from such a height, is designated in the flight plan; and
(ii) the
distance required by the aeroplane to land shall be determined in accordance
with condition (7) and not in accordance
with this condition if it is
intended to land at night, or when the cloud ceiling or ground visibility
forecast for the estimated
time of landing at the aerodrome of intended
destination and at any alternate aerodrome at which it is intended to land in
accordance with specified data for short field landing with all power units
operating, are less than 500 feet and one nautical
mile respectively.
Weight and performance of public
transport aeroplanes classified as aeroplanes of performance group D in their
certificates
of airworthiness
7. For the purposes of article 36(1), an aeroplane
registered in the Territory in respect of which
there is in force under this
Order a certificate of airworthiness in which the aeroplane is designated as
being of performance
group D shall not fly for the purpose of public
transport at night or when the cloud ceiling or visibility prevailing at the
aerodrome of departure and forecast for the estimated time of landing at the
aerodrome at which it is intended to land and at
any alternate aerodrome are
less than 1,000 feet and one nautical mile respectively, and shall not fly for
the purpose of public
transport at any other time unless the weight of the
aeroplane at the commencement of the take off run is such that the following
conditions are satisfied:
(1) That weight does not exceed the maximum take off
weight specified for the altitude and air temperature
at the aerodrome at
which the take off is to be made.
(2) The take off run required and the take off
distance required specified as being appropriate to:
(a) the weight
of the aeroplane at the commencement of the take off run;
(b) the altitude of the aerodrome;
(c) the air temperature at the aerodrome;
(d) the average slope of the surface of the aerodrome in the direction of
take off over the emergency distance available; and
(e) not more than 50 per cent. of the reported wind component opposite to the
direction of take off or not less than 150 per
cent. of the reported wind
component in the direction of take off,
do not exceed the take off run
available and the emergency distance available, respectively, at the
aerodrome at which the take
off is to be made.
(3) (a) The net take off flight path with all power
units operating, specified as being appropriate
to:
(i) the weight
of the aeroplane at the commencement of the take off run;
(ii) the altitude at the aerodrome;
(iii) the air temperature at the aerodrome; and
(iv) not more than 50 per cent. of the reported wind component opposite to
the direction of take off or not less than 150 per
cent. of the reported wind
component in the direction of take off,
and plotted
from a point of 50 feet above the end of the take off distance required at
the aerodrome at which the take off is
to be made to the point at which the
aeroplane reaches a height of 1,000 feet above the aerodrome shows that the
aeroplane
will clear any obstacle in its path by a vertical interval of not
less than 35 feet, except that if it is intended that the aeroplane
shall
change its direction of flight by more than 15 before reaching 1,000 feet
the vertical interval shall be not less than
50 feet during the change of
direction.
(b) For the purpose of sub-paragraph (a) an obstacle shall be deemed to be in
the path of the aeroplane if the distance from
the obstacle to the nearest
point on the ground below the intended line of flight of the aeroplane does
not exceed 75 metres.
(c) In assessing the ability of the aeroplane to satisfy this condition it
shall not be assumed to make a change of direction
of a radius less than the
specified radius of steady turn.
(4) The
aeroplane, at any time after it reaches a height of 1,000 feet above the
aerodrome from which
the take off is to be made, will, in the meteorological
conditions expected for the flight, in the event of any one power unit
becoming inoperative at any point on its route or on any planned diversion
therefrom, and with the other power unit or power
units, if any, operating
within the maximum specified continuous power conditions, be capable of
continuing the flight at altitudes
of not less than the relevant minimum
altitudes for safe flight stated in, or calculated from the information
contained in,
the operations manual relating to the aeroplane to a point
1,000 feet above a place at which a safe landing can be made: in assessing
the ability of the aeroplane to satisfy this condition it shall not be
assumed to be capable of flying at any point on its
route at an altitude
exceeding the performance ceiling with all power units operating specified as
being appropriate to its
estimated weight at that point.
(5) The landing weight of the aeroplane will not
exceed the maximum landing weight specified for the
altitude and the expected
air temperature for the estimated time of landing at the aerodrome at which
it is intended to land
and at any alternate aerodrome.
(6) The distance required by the aeroplane to land
from a height of 50 feet does not, at the aerodrome
at which it is intended
to land and at any alternate aerodrome, exceed 70 per cent. of the landing
distance available on the
most suitable runway for a landing in still air conditions,
and on the runway that may be required for landing because of the
forecast
wind conditions; and for the purposes of the runway that may be required for
this condition the distance required
to land from a height of 50 feet shall
be taken to be that specified as being appropriate to: -
(a) the landing
weight;
(b) the altitude at the aerodrome;
(c) the temperature in the specified international standard atmosphere
appropriate to the altitude at the aerodrome;
(d)
(i) a level
surface in the case of runways usable in both directions; or
(ii) the average slope of the runway in the case of runways usable in only
one direction; and
(e)
(i) still air
conditions in the case of the most suitable runway for a landing in still air
conditions; and
(ii) not more than 50 per cent. of the forecast wind component opposite to
the direction of landing or not less than 150 per
cent. of the forecast wind
component in the direction of landing in the case of the runway that may be
required for the landing
because of the forecast wind conditions.
Weight and performance of public
transport aeroplanes classified as aeroplanes of performance group E in their
certificates
of airworthiness
8. - (1) For the purposes of article
36(1), an aeroplane registered in the Territory in
respect of which there is
in force under this Order a certificate of airworthiness in which the
aeroplane is designated as
being of performance group E shall not fly for the
purpose of public transport unless the weight of the aeroplane at the commencement
of the take off run is such that the following conditions are satisfied:
(a) That weight
for the altitude and the air temperature at the aerodrome at which the take
off is to be made does not exceed
the maximum take off weight specified as
being appropriate to:
(i) the weight
at which the aeroplane is capable, in the en route configuration and with all
power units operating within the
specified maximum continuous power
conditions, of a rate of climb of 700 feet per minute if it has retractable
landing gear
and of 500 feet per minute if it has fixed landing gear; and
(ii) the weight at which the aeroplane is capable, in the en route
configuration and if it is necessary for it to be flown
solely by reference
to instruments for any period before reaching the minimum altitude for safe
flight on the first stage of
the route to be flown, stated in, or calculated
from the information contained in, the operations manual relating to the
aeroplane
and, with one power unit inoperative, of a rate of climb of 150
feet per minute.
(b) The
distance required by the aeroplane to attain a height of 50 feet, with all
power units operating within the maximum
take off power conditions specified,
when multiplied by a factor of 1:33 does not exceed the emergency distance available
at
the aerodrome at which the take off is to be made. The distance required
by the aeroplane to attain a height of 50 feet shall
be that appropriate
to -
(i) the weight
of the aeroplane at the commencement of the take off run;
(ii) the altitude at the aerodrome;
(iii) the air temperature at the aerodrome; and
(iv) not more than 50 per cent. of the reported wind component opposite to
the direction of take off or not less than 150 per
cent. of the reported wind
component in the direction of take off.
(c) The
aeroplane, at any time after it reaches a height of 1,000 feet above the
aerodrome from which take off is to be made,
will, in the meteorological
conditions expected for the flight, in the event of any one power unit
becoming inoperative at
any point on its route or on any planned diversion
therefrom, and with the other power unit or units, if any, operating within
the specified maximum continuous power conditions, be capable of continuing
the flight at altitudes not less than the relevant
minimum altitude for the
safe flight stated in, or calculated from the information contained in, the
operations manual relating
to the aeroplane to a point 1,000 feet above a
place at which a safe landing can be made: in assessing the ability of the
aeroplane
to satisfy this condition it shall not be assumed to be capable of
flying at any point on its route or on any planned diversion
therefrom at an
altitude exceeding that at which it is capable of a rate of climb with all
power units operating within the
maximum continuous power conditions
specified of 150 feet per minute and, if it is necessary for it to be flown
solely by reference
to instruments, be capable, with one power unit
inoperative, of a rate of climb of 100 feet per minute.
(d) The landing weight of the aeroplane for the altitude and the expected air
temperature for the estimated time of landing
at the aerodrome at which it is
intended to land and at any alternate aerodrome will not exceed the maximum
landing weight
specified:
(i) at which
the aeroplane is capable, in the en route configuration and with all power
units operating within the specified
maximum continuous power conditions, of
a rate of climb of 700 feet per minute if it has retractable landing gear and
of 500
feet per minute if it has fixed landing gear; and
(ii) at which the aeroplane is capable in the en route configuration and if
it is necessary for it to be flown solely by reference
to instruments for any
period after leaving the minimum altitude for safe flight on the last stage of
the route to be flown,
stated in, or calculated from the information
contained in, the operations manual relating to the aeroplane and with one
power
unit inoperative, of a rate of climb of 150 feet per minute.
(e) The landing
distance required does not, at the aerodrome at which it is intended to land
and at any alternate aerodrome
exceed 70 per cent. of the landing distance
available on the most suitable runway for a landing in still air conditions,
and
for the purposes of this sub-paragraph the distance required to land from
a height of 50 feet shall be taken to be that specified
as being appropriate
to:
(i) the landing
weight;
(ii) the altitude at the aerodrome; and
(iii) the temperature in the specified international standard atmosphere
appropriate to the altitude at the aerodrome.
(2) (a)
Subject to sub-paragraph (b), an aeroplane designated as aforesaid as an
aeroplane of performance
group E shall not fly for the purpose of public
transport at night or when the cloud ceiling or visibility prevailing at the
aerodrome of departure and forecast for the estimated time of landing at the
aerodrome at which it is intended to land and at
any alternate aerodrome are
less than 1,000 feet and one nautical mile respectively.
(b)
Sub-paragraph (a) shall not apply if the aeroplane is capable, in the en
route configuration and with one power unit inoperative,
of a rate of climb
of 150 feet per minute.
Weight and performance of public
transport aeroplanes classified as aeroplanes of performance group F in their
certificates
of airworthiness
9. For the purposes of article 36(1), an aeroplane
registered in the Territory in respect of which
there is in force under this
Order a certificate of airworthiness in which the aeroplane is designated as
being of performance
group F shall not fly for the purpose of public
transport unless the weight of the aeroplane at the commencement of the take
off run is such that the following conditions are satisfied:
(1) That weight does not exceed the maximum take off
weight specified for the altitude and the air
temperature at the aerodrome at
which the take off is to be made.
(2) The take off distance required specified as being
appropriate to:
(a) the weight
of the aeroplane at the commencement of the take off run;
(b) the altitude at the aerodrome;
(c) the air temperature at the aerodrome; and
(d) the average slope of the surface of the aerodrome in the direction of
take off over the take off run available; and not
more than 50 per cent. of
the reported wind component opposite to the direction of take off or not less
than 150 per cent.
of the reported wind component in the direction of take
off,
does not exceed the take off run
available at the aerodrome at which the take off is to be made.
(3)
(a) Subject to
sub-paragraph (b), the aeroplane, at any time after it reaches a height of
1,000 feet above the aerodrome from
which take off is to be made, will, in
the meteorological conditions expected for the flight, in the event of any
one power
unit becoming inoperative at any point on its route or on any
planned diversion therefrom, and with the other power unit or power
units, if
any, operating within the specified maximum continuous power conditions, be
capable of continuing the flight at altitudes
not less than the relevant
minimum altitude for safe flight stated in, or calculated from the
information contained in, the
operations manual relating to the aeroplane to
a point 1,000 feet above:
(i) in the case
of an aeroplane having one power unit, a place at which a safe landing can be
made; and
(ii) in the case of an aeroplane having two or more power units, an aerodrome
at which it can comply with condition (5).
(b) In
assessing the ability of the aeroplane to satisfy this condition -
(i) the
aeroplane shall not be assumed to be capable of flying, at any point on its
route or on any planned diversion therefrom,
at an altitude exceeding that at
which it is capable of a gradient of climb, with all power units operating
within maximum
continuous power conditions specified, of 2 per cent; and
(ii) over those parts of the route or any planned diversion therefrom, where
in the meteorological conditions expected for
the flight it is expected that
the aeroplane will be out of sight of the surface due to cloud cover at or below
the relevant
minimum safe altitude, the aeroplane shall be required to be
capable of a gradient of climb, with one power unit inoperative and
with the
other power unit or power units operating within the specified maximum
continuous power conditions, at the relevant
minimum safe altitude, of 1 per
cent.
(4) The
landing weight of the aeroplane will not exceed the maximum landing weight
specified for the
altitude and the expected air temperature for the estimated
time of landing at the aerodrome at which it is intended to land and
at any
alternate aerodrome.
(5)
(a) The landing
distance required does not exceed at the aerodrome at which it is intended to
land or at any alternate aerodrome,
as the case may be, the landing distance
available on the most suitable runway for a landing in still air conditions.
(b) For the purposes of sub-paragraph (a) the landing distance required shall
be that specified as being appropriate to -
(i) the landing
weight;
(ii) the altitude at the aerodrome;
(iii) the temperature in the specified international standard atmosphere
appropriate to the altitude at the aerodrome;
(iv) a runway with a level surface; and
(v) still air conditions.
(6) A
single-engined aeroplane designated as aforesaid as an aeroplane of performance
group F shall
not fly for the purpose of public transport at night or when
the cloud ceiling or visibility prevailing at the aerodrome of departure
or
forecast for the estimated time of landing at the aerodrome at which it is
intended to land and at any alternate aerodrome
are less than 1,000 feet and
one nautical mile respectively.
Weight and performance of public transport aeroplanes classified as
aeroplanes of performance group X in their certificates
of airworthiness
10. For the purpose of article 36(1), an aeroplane
in respect of which there is in force under this
Order a certificate of
airworthiness designating the aeroplane as being of performance group X shall
not fly for the purpose
of public transport unless the weight of the aeroplane
at the commencement of the take off run is such that the following conditions
are satisfied:
(1)
(a) That weight
does not exceed the maximum take off weight specified for the altitude at the
aerodrome at which the take off
is to be made, or for the altitude and the
air temperature at such aerodrome, as the case may be.
(b) The minimum effective take off runway length required, specified as being
appropriate to:
(i) the weight
of the aeroplane at the commencement of the take off run;
(ii) the altitude at the aerodrome;
(iii) the air temperature at the time of take off;
(iv) the condition of the surface of the runway from which the take off will
be made;
(v) the overall slope of the take off run available; and
(vi) not more than 50 per cent. of the reported wind component opposite to
the direction of take off or not less than 150 per
cent. of the reported wind
component in the direction of take off,
does not exceed
the take off run available at the aerodrome at which the take off is to be
made.
(c)
(i) The take
off flight path with one power unit inoperative, specified as being
appropriate to: -
(aa) the weight
of the aeroplane at the commencement of the take off run;
(bb) the altitude at the aerodrome; and
(cc) not more than 50 per cent. of the reported wind component opposite to
the direction of take off or not less than 150 per
cent. of the reported wind
component in the direction of take off,
and plotted
from a point 50 feet above the end of the minimum effective take off runway
length required at the aerodrome at
which the take off is to be made, shows
that the aeroplane will thereafter clear any obstacle in its path by a
vertical interval
of not less than the greater of 50 feet or 35 feet plus
one-hundredth of the distance from the point on the ground below the intended
line of flight of the aeroplane nearest to the obstacle to the end of the
take off distance available, measured along the intended
line of flight of
the aeroplane.
(ii) For the purpose of sub-paragraph (i) an obstacle shall be deemed to be
in the path of the aeroplane if the distance from
the obstacle to the nearest
point on the ground below the intended line of flight does not exceed:
(aa) a distance
of 60 metres plus half the wing span of the aeroplane plus one-eighth of the
distance from such point to the
end of the take off distance available
measured along the intended line of flight; or
(bb) 900 metres,
whichever is
the less.
(iii) In assessing the ability of the aeroplane to satisfy this condition, in
so far as it relates to flight path, it shall
not be assumed to make a change
of direction of a radius less than the radius of steady turn corresponding to
an angle of bank
of 15 .
(2)
(a)
(i) Subject to
sub-paragraph (ii), the weight of the aeroplane at any point on the route or
any planned diversion therefrom,
having regard to the fuel and oil expected
to be consumed up to that point, shall be such that the aeroplane, with one
power
unit inoperative and the other power unit or units operating within the
maximum continuous power conditions specified, will be
capable of a rate of
climb of at least K(Vso/100)2 feet per minute at an altitude not
less than the minimum altitude for safe flight stated in or calculated from
the information
contained in the operations manual relating to the aeroplane,
where Vso is in knots and K has the value of 797 - 1060/N,
N being
the number of power units installed.
(ii) Subject to sub-paragraph (iii), as an alternative to sub-paragraph (i),
the aeroplane may be flown at an altitude from
which, in the event of failure
of one power unit, it is capable of reaching an aerodrome where a landing can
be made in accordance
with sub-paragraph (b) of condition (3) relating to an
alternate aerodrome. In that case the weight of the aeroplane shall be
such
that, with the remaining power unit or units operating within the maximum
continuous power conditions specified, it is
capable of maintaining a minimum
altitude on the route to such aerodrome of 2,000 feet above all obstacles
within 10 nautical
miles on either side of the intended track.
(iii) Where the operator of the aeroplane is satisfied, taking into account
the navigation aids which can be made use of by
the aeroplane on the route,
that the commander of the aeroplane will be able to maintain his intended
track on that route within
a margin of five nautical miles, the provisions of
sub-paragraph (ii) shall have effect as if five nautical miles were
substituted
therein for 10 nautical miles and
(aa) the rate
of climb, specified for the appropriate weight and altitude, used in
calculating the flight path shall be reduced
by an amount equal to
K(Vso/100)2 feet per minute;
(bb) the aeroplane shall comply with the climb requirements of sub-paragraph
(a)(i) of condition (2) at 1,000 feet above the
chosen aerodrome;
(cc) account shall be taken of the effect of wind and temperature on the
flight path; and
(dd) the weight of the aeroplane may be assumed to be progressively reduced
by normal consumption of fuel and oil.
(b) An
aeroplane having four power units shall, if any two power units become
inoperative at any point along the route or any
planned diversion therefrom,
being a point more than 90 minutes flying time (assuming all power units to
be operating) from
the nearest aerodrome at which a landing can be made in
compliance with sub-paragraph (b) of condition (3) relating to an alternate
aerodrome, be capable of continuing the flight at an altitude of not less
than 1,000 feet above ground level to a point above
that aerodrome. In
assessing the ability of the aeroplane to satisfy this condition, it shall be
assumed that the remaining
power units will operate within the specified
maximum continuous power conditions, and account shall be taken of the
temperature
and wind conditions expected for the flight.
(3)
(a) The landing
weight of the aeroplane will not exceed the maximum landing weight specified
for the altitude at the aerodrome
at which it is intended to land and at any
alternate aerodrome.
(b) The required landing runway lengths respectively specified as being
appropriate to the aerodrome of intended destination
and the alternate
aerodromes do not exceed at the aerodrome at which it is intended to land or
at any alternate aerodrome,
as the case may be, the landing distance
available on:
(i) the most
suitable runway for landing in still air conditions; and
(ii) the runway that may be required for landing because of the forecast wind
conditions, the required landing runway lengths
being taken to be those
specified as being appropriate to:
(aa) the
landing weight;
(bb) the altitude at the aerodrome;
(cc) still air conditions in the case of the most suitable runway for a
landing in still air conditions; and
(dd) not more than 50 per cent. of the forecast wind component opposite to
the direction of landing or not less than 150 per
cent. of the forecast wind
component in the direction of landing in the case of the runway that may be
required for landing
because of the forecast wind conditions.
Weight and performance of public
transport helicopters classified as helicopters of performance group A in
their certificate
of airworthiness
11. For the purposes of article 36(1), a helicopter
registered in the Territory in respect of which
there is in force under this
Order a certificate of airworthiness in which the helicopter is designated as
being of performance
group A shall not fly for the purpose of public
transport unless the weight of the helicopter at the commencement of take off
is such that the following conditions are satisfied:
(1) The weight does not exceed the maximum take off
weight specified for the altitude and the air temperature
at the site from
which the take off is to be made.
(2) The landing weight of the helicopter will not
exceed the maximum landing weight specified for the
altitude and the expected
air temperature for the estimated time of landing at the site at which it is
intended to land and
at any alternate site.
Weight and performance of public transport helicopters classified as
helicopters of performance group A (Restricted) in their
certificate of
airworthiness
12. - (1) Subject to paragraph (2), for
the purposes of article 36(1), a helicopter registered
in the Territory in
respect of which there is in force under this Order a certificate of
airworthiness in which the helicopter
is designated as being of performance
group A (Restricted) shall not fly for the purpose of public transport when
the cloud
ceiling or visibility prevailing at the departure site and forecast
for the estimated time of landing at the site at which it
is intended to land
and at any alternate site are less than 500 feet and 1,000 metres
respectively and shall not fly for the
purpose of public transport at any
other time unless the weight of the helicopter at the commencement of take
off is such that
the following conditions are satisfied:
(a) The weight
does not exceed the maximum take off weight specified for the altitude and
the air temperature at the site from
which the take off is to be made.
(b) The landing weight of the helicopter will not exceed the maximum landing
weight specified for the altitude and the expected
air temperature for the
estimated time of landing at the site at which it is intended to land and at
any alternate site.
(2) This
regulation shall not apply to a helicopter flying under and in accordance
with the terms of
a police air operator's certificate.
Weight and performance of public transport helicopters classified as
helicopters of performance group B in their certificate
of airworthiness
13. - (1) Subject to sub-paragraph (2),
for the purposes of article 36(1), a helicopter
registered in the Territory
in respect of which there is in force under this Order a certificate of
airworthiness in which
the helicopter is designated as being of performance
group B shall not fly for the purpose of public transport at night or out
of
sight of the surface or when the cloud ceiling or visibility prevailing at
the departure site and forecast for the estimated
time of landing at the site
at which it is intended to land are less than 600 feet and 1,000 metres
respectively and shall
not fly for the purpose of public transport at any
other time unless the weight of the helicopter at the commencement of take
off is such that the following conditions are satisfied:
(a) The weight
does not exceed the maximum take off weight specified for the altitude and
the air temperature at the site from
which the take off is made.
(b) The landing weight of the helicopter will not exceed the maximum landing
weight specified for the altitude and the expected
air temperature for the
estimated time of landing at the site at which it is intended to land and at
any alternate site.
(2) This
regulation shall not apply to a helicopter flying under and in accordance
with the terms of
a police air operator's certificate.
Noise and vibration caused by aircraft on aerodromes
14. For the purposes of article 108, the conditions
under which noise and vibration may be caused
by aircraft (including military
aircraft) on Government aerodromes, licensed aerodromes or on aerodromes at
which the manufacture,
repair or maintenance of aircraft is carried out by
persons carrying on business as manufacturers or repairers of aircraft, shall
be as follows:
(a) the
aircraft is taking off or landing; or
(b) the aircraft is moving on the ground or water; or
(c) the engines are being operated in the aircraft: -
(i) for the
purpose of ensuring their satisfactory performance;
(ii) for the purpose of bringing them to a proper temperature in preparation
for, or at the end of, a flight; or
(iii) for the purpose of ensuring that the instruments, accessories or other
components of the aircraft are in a satisfactory
condition.
Certificates of maintenance review
and of release to service-issue by maintenance engineers licensed by
prescribed countries
15. For the purpose of articles 10(3)(a)(i)(cc) and
12(8)(a)(iii), the following countries are hereby
specified:
|
Anguilla
|
Kuwait
|
|
Antigua
|
Malawi
|
|
Australia
|
Malaysia
|
|
Bahamas
|
Montserrat
|
|
Barbados
|
New Zealand
|
|
Belize
|
Pakistan
|
|
British Virgin Islands
|
St Christopher and Nevis
|
|
Brunei Darussalam
|
St Lucia
|
|
Burma
|
St Vincent and the Grenadines
|
|
Canada
|
Singapore
|
|
Cayman Islands
|
Republic of South Africa
|
|
Dominica
|
Sri Lanka
|
|
Ghana
|
Sudan
|
|
Grenada
|
Trinidad and Tobago
|
|
Guyana
|
Turks and Caicos Islands
|
|
Hong Kong
|
Tanzania
|
|
India
|
Uganda
|
|
Republic of Ireland
|
United Kingdom
|
|
Jamaica
|
Zambia
|
|
Kenya
|
|
Aeroplanes flying for the purpose of public transport of
passengers - aerodrome facilities for approach to landing
and
landing
16. - (1) This regulation shall apply to
every aeroplane registered in the Territory engaged
on a flight for the
purpose of public transport of passengers on a scheduled journey and to every
aeroplane so registered whose
maximum total weight authorised exceeds 5,700
kg engaged on such a flight otherwise than on a scheduled journey.
(2) For the purposes of article 34(1)(c), the
following manning and equipment are specified in relation
to aerodromes
intended to be used for landing or as an alternate aerodrome by aircraft to
which this regulation applies: -
(a) air traffic
control service or aerodrome flight information service, including the
reporting to aircraft of the current
meteorological conditions at the
aerodrome;
(b) very high frequency radiotelephony;
(c) at least one of the following radio navigation aids, either at the
aerodrome or elsewhere, and in either case for the purpose
of assisting the
pilot in locating the aerodrome and in making an approach to landing
there: -
(i) radio
direction finding equipment utilising emissions in the very high frequency
bands;
(ii) a non-directional radio beacon transmitting signals in the low or medium
frequency bands;
(iii) very high frequency omni-directional radio range;
(iv) radio navigation land stations forming part of the Decca radio
navigation system;
(v) radar equipment.
It shall
be sufficient if the equipment specified in sub-paragraph (c) is provided,
even if for the
time being it is not in operation.
(3) An aircraft to which this regulation applies
shall not land or make an approach to landing at any
aerodrome unless
services and equipment according with paragraph (2) are provided and are in
operation at that aerodrome, and
can be made use of by that aircraft, and, in
the case of the navigation aids specified in sub-paragraph (c), items (i) to
(iv),
instructions and procedures for the use of the aid are included in the
operations manual relating to the aircraft. A person shall
be deemed not to
have contravened the provisions of this paragraph if he proves
that: -
(a) for the
time being use could not be made of the radio navigation aids provided under
sub-paragraph (2)(c) whether by reason
of those aids not being in operation
or of the unserviceability of equipment in the aircraft itself; and
(b) the approach to landing was made in accordance with instructions and
procedures appropriate to that circumstance and included
in the operations
manual.
Pilots maintenance-prescribed
repairs or replacements
17. For the purposes of article 12(5), the following
repairs or replacements are hereby specified: -
(1) Replacement of landing gear tyres, landing skids
or skid shoes;
(2) Replacement of elastic shock absorber cord units
on landing gear where special tools are not required;
(3) Replacement of defective safety wiring or split
pins excluding those in engine, transmission, flight
control and rotor
systems;
(4) Patch-repairs to fabric not requiring rib
stitching or the removal of structural parts or control
surfaces, if the
repairs do not cover up structural damage and do not include repairs to rotor
blades;
(5) Repairs to upholstery and decorative furnishing
of the cabin or cockpit interior when repair does
not require dismantling of
any structure or operating system or interfere with an operating system or
affect the structure
of the aircraft;
(6) Repairs, not requiring welding, to fairings,
non-structural cover plates and cowlings;
(7) Replacement of side windows where that work does
not interfere with the structure or with any operating
system;
(8) Replacement of safety belts or safety harness;
(9) Replacement of seats or seat parts not involving
dismantling of any structure or of any operating
system;
(10) Replacement of bulbs, reflectors, glasses,
lenses or lights;
(11) Replacement of any cowling not requiring removal
of the propeller, rotors, or disconnection of
engine or flight controls;
(12) Replacement of unserviceable sparking plugs;
(13) Replacement of batteries;
(14) Replacement of wings and tail surfaces and
controls, the attachments of which are designed to
provide for assembly
immediately before each flight and dismantling after each flight;
(15) Replacement of main rotor blades that are
designed for removal where special tools are not required;
(16) Replacement of generator and fan belts designed
for removal where special tools are not required;
(17) Replacement of VHF communication equipment,
being equipment which is not combined with navigation
equipment.
Mandatory reporting - prescribed reportable occurrences, time and
manner of reporting and information to be reported
18. - (1) For the purposes of article
117(1), the following reportable occurrences are
hereby specified, that is to
say those: -
(a) involving
damage to an aircraft;
(b) involving injury to a person;
(c) involving the impairment during a flight of the capacity of a member of
the flight crew of an aircraft to undertake the
functions to which his
licence relates;
(d) involving the use in flight of any procedures taken for the purpose of
overcoming an emergency;
(e) involving the failure of an aircraft system or of any equipment of an
aircraft;
(f) arising from the control of an aircraft in flight by its flight crew;
(g) arising from failure or inadequacy of facilities or services on the
ground used or intended to be used for the purposes
of or in connection with
the operation of aircraft;
(h) arising from the loading or the carriage of passengers, cargo (including
mail) or fuel;
and those which are not referred
to in sub-paragraphs (a) to (h) but which, in the opinion of a person
referred to in sub-paragraphs
(a) to (e) of article 117(1), constitute an
occurrence endangering, or which if not corrected would endanger, the safety
of
an aircraft, its occupants or any other person.
(2) For the purposes of this regulation, an aircraft
system includes the flight control, power plant,
fuel, hydraulic, pneumatic,
pressurisation, electrical, navigation and any other system of the aircraft.
(3)
(a) Subject to
sub-paragraph (b), for the purposes of article 117(1), it is hereby specified
that a report containing the information
referred to in paragraph (4) shall
be despatched in writing, or in such other form as the Governor may approve,
and by the
quickest available means to the Governor within 96 hours of the
reportable occurrence coming to the knowledge of the person making
the
report.
(b) If at that time any of the said information is not in the possession of
the person making the report, he shall despatch
that information to the
Governor in writing, or in such other form as the Governor may approve, and
by the quickest available
means within 96 hours of the information coming
into his possession.
(4) For
the purposes of article 117(1), a report shall, as far as possible, contain
the following information:
(a) the type,
series and registration marks of the aircraft concerned;
(b) the name of the operator of the aircraft;
(c) the date of the reportable occurrence;
(d) if the person making the report has instituted an investigation into the
reportable occurrence, whether or not this has
been completed;
(e) a description of the reportable occurrence, including its effects and any
other relevant information;
(f) in the case of a reportable occurrence which occurs during flight:
(i) the
Co-ordinated Universal Time of the occurrence;
(ii) the last point of departure and the next point of intended landing of
the aircraft at that time; and
(iii) the geographical position of the aircraft at that time;
(g) in the case
of a defect in or malfunctioning of an aircraft or any part or equipment of
an aircraft, the name of the manufacturer
of the aircraft, part or equipment,
as the case may be, and, where appropriate, the part number and modification
standard of
the part or equipment and its location on the aircraft;
(h) the signature and name in block capitals of the person making the report,
the name of his employer and the capacity in
which he acts for that employer;
and
(i) in the case of a report made by the commander of an aircraft or a person
referred to in sub-paragraph (c) or (d) of article
117(1), the address or
telephone number at which communications should be made to him, if different
from that of his place
of employment.
Minimum
navigation and height keeping performance - capability and
prescribed airspace and navigation performance
19. - (1) For the purposes of article
47(1) the following navigation performance capability
is hereby specified,
that is to say, a capability to ensure that -
(a) the
standard deviation of lateral errors in the track of the aircraft is not more
than 6.3 nautical miles; and
(b) the proportion of the flight time of the aircraft during which the actual
track of the aircraft is 30 nautical miles or
more off the track along which
it has been given an air traffic control clearance to fly is less than 5.3
10-4 and
(c) the proportion of the flight time of the aircraft during which the actual
track of the aircraft is between 50 and 70 nautical
miles off the track along
which it has been given an air traffic control clearance to fly is less than
13 x 10-5
(2) For
the purposes of article 48(1) the following height keeping performance
capability is hereby
specified, that is to say, a capability to ensure that:
(a) altimetry
system error shall be in compliance with paragraph 2.1.1(2) of Document
7030/4-NAT Part 1 Rules of the Air, Air
Traffic Services and Search and
Rescue (ICAO Regional Procedures Fourth Edition-1987); and
(b)
(i) in respect
of aircraft first registered in a Contracting State on or after 1st January
1997 altitude can be automatically
controlled within a tolerance band of 65
feet;
(ii) in respect of aircraft first registered in a Contracting State before
1st January 1997 altitude can be automatically controlled
within a tolerance
band of 130 feet.
(3) For
the purposes of article 47(1), the following airspace is hereby specified as
North Atlantic
Minimum Navigation Performance Specification Airspace, that is
to say, the airspace from flight level 285 to flight level 420
within the
area defined by rhumb lines joining successively the following
points -
|
N3410.00 W01748.00
|
N8200.00 E03000.00
|
N4500.00 W05300.00
|
|
N3630.00 W01500.00
|
North Pole
|
N4336.00 W06000.00
|
|
N4200.00 W01500.00
|
N8200.00 W06000.00
|
N4152.00 W06700.00
|
|
N4300.00 W01300.00
|
N7800.00 W07500.00
|
N3900.00 W06700.00
|
|
N4500.00 W01300.00
|
N7600.00 W07600.00
|
N3835.00 W06853.00
|
|
N4500.00 W00800.00
|
N6500.00 W05745.00
|
N3830.00 W06915.00
|
|
N5100.00 W00800.00
|
N6500.00 W06000.00
|
N3830.00 W06000.00
|
|
N5100.00 W01500.00
|
N6400.00 W06300.00
|
N2700.00 W06000.00
|
|
N5400.00 W01500.00
|
N6100.00 W06300.00
|
N2700.00 W02500.00
|
|
N5434.00 W01000.00
|
N5700.00 W05900.00
|
N3000.00 W02500.00
|
|
N6100.00 W01000.00
|
N5300.00 W05400.00
|
N3000.00 W02000.00
|
|
N6100.00 00000.00
|
N4900.00 W05100.00
|
N3139.00 W01725.00
|
|
N8200.00 00000.00
|
N4500.00 W05100.00
|
|
thence by that part of the arc to circle radius 100 nautical miles centred on
N3304.00 W01621.00 to N3410.00 W01748.00.
Requirements for airborne collision avoidance systems
20. For the purposes of paragraph 4(5) of Schedule 5
to this Order the prescribed requirements for
an airborne collision avoidance
system shall be the requirements for ACAS II equipment set out in Volume 4
Chapter 4 of Annex
10 (first edition) to the Chicago Convention.
ANNEX
Regulation 4
Weight and performance of public transport
aeroplanes having no performance group classification in their certificates
of airworthiness
Conditions (1) and (2) apply to all aeroplanes to which regulation 4 applies;
Conditions (3) to (10) apply to all aeroplanes to which regulation 4
applies -
(a) of which
the specified maximum total weight authorised exceeds 5,700 kg, or
(b) of which the specified maximum total weight authorised does not exceed
5,700 kg, and which comply with neither sub-paragraph
(a) nor (b) of
condition (1);
Conditions (11) to (18) inclusive
apply to all aeroplanes to which regulation 4 applies of which the specified
maximum total
weight authorised does not exceed 5,700 kg, and which comply
with sub-paragraph (a) or (b) of condition (1) or with both those
sub-paragraphs.
All aeroplanes
(1) Either -
(a) the wing
loading of the aeroplane does not exceed 20 lb per square foot; or
(b) the stalling speed of the aeroplane in the landing configuration does not
exceed 60 knots; or
(c) the aeroplane, with any one of its power units inoperative and the
remaining power unit or units operating within the maximum
continuous power
conditions specified, is capable of a gradient of climb of at least 1 in 200
at an altitude of 5,000 feet
in the specified international standard
atmosphere.
(2) The
weight of the aeroplane at the commencement of the take off run does not
exceed the maximum
take off weight, if any, specified for the altitude and
the air temperature at the aerodrome at which the take off is to be made.
Aeroplanes of a specified maximum total weight authorised exceeding 5,700 kg
and aeroplanes of a specified maximum total weight
authorised not exceeding
5,700 kg which comply with neither sub-paragraph (a) nor (b) of condition (1)
(3)
(a) The
distance required by the aeroplane to attain a height of 50 feet, with all
power units operating within the maximum
take off power conditions specified
does not exceed the take off run available at the aerodrome at which the take
off is to
be made.
(b) The distance required by the aeroplane to attain a height of 50 feet with
all power units operating within the maximum
take off power conditions
specified, when multiplied by a factor of either 1.33 for aeroplanes having
two power units or by
a factor of 1.18 for aeroplanes having four power
units, does not exceed the emergency distance available at the aerodrome at
which the take off is to be made.
(c) For the purposes of sub-paragraphs (a) and (b) the distance required by
the aeroplane to attain a height of 50 feet shall
be that appropriate to:
(i) the weight
of the aeroplane at the commencement of the take off run;
(ii) the altitude at the aerodrome;
(iii) the air temperature at the aerodrome;
(iv) the condition of the surface of the runway from which the take off will
be made;
(v) the slope of the surface of the aerodrome in the direction of take off
over the take off run available and the emergency
distance available, respectively;
and
(vi) not more than 50 per cent of the reported wind component opposite to the
direction of take off or not less than 150 per
cent of the reported wind
component in the direction of take off.
(4)
(a) The take
off flight path with one power unit inoperative and the remaining power unit
or units operating within the maximum
take off power conditions specified,
appropriate to: -
(i) the weight
of the aeroplane at the commencement of the take off run;
(ii) the altitude of the aerodrome;
(iii) the air temperature at the aerodrome; and
(iv) not more than 50 per cent of the reported wind component opposite to the
direction of take off or not less than 150 per
cent of the reported wind
component in the direction of take off,
and plotted
from a point 50 feet above the end of the appropriate factored distance
required for take off under sub-paragraph
(b) of condition (3) at the
aerodrome at which the take off is to be made, shows that the aeroplane will
clear any obstacle
in its path by a vertical interval of at least 35 feet
except that if it is intended that an aeroplane shall change its direction
by
more than 15 the vertical interval shall be not less than 50 feet during the
change of direction.
(b) For the purpose of sub-paragraph (a) an obstacle shall be deemed to be in
the path of the aeroplane if the distance from
the obstacle to the nearest
point on the ground below the intended line of flight does not
exceed: -
(i) a distance
of 60 metres plus half the wing span of the aeroplane, plus one-eighth of the
distance from such point to the
end of the take off distance available,
measured along the intended line of flight; or
(ii) 900 metres,
whichever is
the less.
(c) In assessing the ability of the aeroplane to satisfy this condition, it shall
not be assumed to make a change of direction
of a radius less than a radius
of steady turn corresponding to an angle of bank of 15 .
(5) The
aeroplane will, in the meteorological conditions expected for the flight, in
the event of any
one power unit becoming inoperative at any point on its
route or on any planned diversion therefrom and with the other power unit
or
units, if any, operating within the maximum continuous power conditions
specified, be capable of continuing the flight,
clearing obstacles within 10
nautical miles either side of the intended track by a vertical interval of at
least:
(a) 1,000 feet
when the gradient of the flight path is not less than zero; or
(b) 2,000 feet when the gradient of the flight path is less than zero,
to an aerodrome at which it can
comply with condition (9), and on arrival over such aerodrome the flight path
shall have a gradient
of not less than zero at 1,500 feet above the
aerodrome.
For the purpose of this condition the gradient of climb of the aeroplane shall
be taken to be 1 per cent. less than that specified.
(6) The aeroplane will, in the meteorological
conditions expected for the flight, at any point on its
route or on any
planned diversion therefrom be capable of climbing at a gradient of at least
1 in 50, with all power units
operating within the maximum continuous power
conditions specified at the following altitudes:
(a) the minimum
altitudes for safe flight on each stage of the route to be flown or of any
planned diversion therefrom specified
in, or calculated from the information
contained in, the operations manual relating to the aeroplane; and
(b) the minimum altitudes necessary for compliance with conditions (5) and
(7), as appropriate.
(7) If on
the route to be flown or any planned diversion therefrom, the aeroplane will
be engaged in
a flight over water during which at any point it may be more
than 90 minutes flying time in still air from the nearest shore,
it will in
the event of two power units becoming inoperative during such time and with
the other power unit or units, if any,
operating within the maximum
continuous power conditions specified be capable of continuing the flight
having regard to the
meteorological conditions expected for the flight,
clearing all obstacles within 10 nautical miles either side of the intended
track by a vertical interval of at least 1,000 feet, to an aerodrome at which
a safe landing can be made.
(8) The landing weight of the aeroplane will not
exceed the maximum landing weight, if any, specified
for the altitude and the
expected air temperature for the estimated time of landing at the aerodrome
at which it is intended
to land and at any alternate aerodrome.
(9) The distance required by the aeroplane to land
from a height of 50 feet does not, at the aerodrome
at which it is intended
to land, exceed 60 per cent. of the landing distance available on:
(a) the most
suitable runway for a landing in still air conditions; and
(b) (i) subject to sub-paragraph (ii), the runway that may be required for
landing because of the forecast wind conditions;
(ii) if an
alternate aerodrome is designated in the flight plan the landing distance
required at the aerodrome at which it is
intended to land shall not exceed 70
per cent. of that available on the runway.
The distance required to land from
a height of 50 feet shall be taken to be that appropriate to:
(i) the landing
weight;
(ii) the altitude at the aerodrome;
(iii) the temperature in the specified international standard atmosphere
appropriate to the altitude at the aerodrome;
(iv)
(aa) a level
surface in the case of runways usable in both directions;
(bb) the average slope of the runway in the case of runways usable in only
one direction; and
(v)
(aa) still air
conditions in the case of the most suitable runway for a landing in still air
conditions; and
(bb) not more than 50 per cent. of the forecast wind component opposite to
the direction of landing or not less than 150 per
cent. of the forecast wind
component in the direction of landing in the case of the runway that may be
required for landing
because of the forecast wind conditions.
(10) The
distance required by the aeroplane to land from a height of 50 feet does not,
at any alternate
aerodrome exceed 70 per cent. of the landing distance available
on:
(a) the most
suitable runway for a landing in still air conditions; and
(b) the runway that may be required for landing because of the forecast wind
conditions;
For the purpose of this condition
the distance required to land from a height of 50 feet shall be determined in
the manner provided
in condition (9).
Aeroplanes of a specified maximum total weight authorised not exceeding 5,700
kg and which comply with either sub-paragraph
(a) or (b) of condition (1), or
with both those sub-paragraphs
(11) If the aeroplane is engaged on a flight at night
or when the cloud ceiling or visibility prevailing
at the aerodrome of
departure and forecast for the estimated time of landing at the aerodrome of
destination or at any alternate
aerodrome are less than 1,000 feet and one
nautical mile respectively, it will, with any one of its power units
inoperative
and the remaining power unit or units, if any, operating within
the maximum continuous power conditions specified, be capable
of climbing at
a gradient of at least 1 in 200 at an altitude of 2,500 feet in the specified
international standard atmosphere.
(12)
(a) The
distance required by the aeroplane to attain a height of 50 feet with all
power units operating within the maximum take
off power conditions specified,
does not exceed the take off run available at the aerodrome at which the take
off is to be
made;
(b) The distance required by the aeroplane to attain a height of 50 feet,
with all power units operating within the maximum
take off power conditions
specified, when multiplied by a factor of 1.33 does not exceed the emergency
distance available at
the aerodrome at which the take off is to be made;
(c) For the purposes of sub-paragraphs (a) and (b) the distance required by
the aeroplane to attain a height of 50 feet shall
be that appropriate to:
(i) the weight
of the aeroplane at the commencement of the take off run;
(ii) the altitude of the aerodrome;
(iii) the temperature in the specified international standard atmosphere
appropriate to the altitude at the aerodrome or, if
greater, the air
temperature at the aerodrome less 15 centigrade;
(iv) the slope of the surface of the aerodrome in the direction of take off
over the take off run available and the emergency
distance available
respectively; and
(v) not more than 50 per cent. of the reported wind component opposite to the
direction of take off or not less than 150 per
cent. of the reported wind
component in the direction of take off.
(13) The
take off flight path, with all power units operating within the maximum take
off power conditions
specified, appropriate to:
(a) the weight
of the aeroplane at the commencement of the take off run;
(b) the altitude at the aerodrome;
(c) the temperature in the specified international standard atmosphere
appropriate to the altitude at the aerodrome, or, if
greater, the air
temperature at the aerodrome less 15 centigrade; and
(d) not more than 50 per cent. of the reported wind component opposite to the
direction of take off or not less than 150 per
cent. of the reported wind
component in the direction of take off,
and plotted from a point 50 feet
above the end of the factored distance required for take off under
sub-paragraph (b) of condition
(12), at the aerodrome at which the take off
is to be made, shows that the aeroplane will clear any obstacle lying within
60
metres plus half the wing span of the aeroplane on either side of its path
by a vertical interval of at least 35 feet. In assessing
the ability of the
aeroplane to satisfy this condition it shall not be assumed to make a change
of direction of a radius less
than a radius of steady turn corresponding to
an angle of bank of 15 .
(14) The aeroplane will, in the meteorological
conditions expected for the flight, in the event of
any power unit becoming
inoperative at any point on its route or on any planned diversion therefrom
and with the other power
unit or units, if any, operating within the maximum
continuous power conditions specified, be capable of continuing the flight
so
as to reach a point above a place at which a safe landing can be made at a
suitable height for such landing.
(15) The aeroplane will, in the meteorological
conditions expected for the flight, at any point on
its route or any planned
diversion therefrom, be capable of climbing at a gradient of at least 1 in
50, with all power units
operating within the maximum continuous power
conditions specified at the following altitudes -
(a) the minimum
altitudes for safe flight on each stage of the route to be flown or on any
planned diversion therefrom specified
in, or calculated from, the information
contained in the operations manual relating to the aeroplane; and
(b) the minimum altitudes necessary for compliance with condition (14).
(16) If on
the route to be flown or any planned diversion therefrom the aeroplane will
be engaged on
a flight over water during which at any point it may be more
than 30 minutes flying time in still air from the nearest shore,
it will, in
the event of one power unit becoming inoperative during such time and the
other power unit or units, if any, operating
within the maximum continuous
power conditions specified, be capable of climbing at a gradient of at least
1 in 200 at an altitude
of 5,000 feet in the specified international standard
atmosphere.
(17) The landing weight of the aeroplane will not
exceed the maximum landing weight, if any, specified
for the altitude and the
expected air temperature for the estimated time of landing at the aerodrome
at which it is intended
to land and at any alternate aerodrome.
(18) The distance required by the aeroplane to land
from a height of 50 feet does not at the aerodrome
at which it is intended to
land and at any alternate aerodrome, exceed 70 per cent., or, if a visual
approach and landing will
be possible in the meteorological conditions
forecast for the estimated time of landing, 80 per cent. of the landing
distance
available on -
(a) the most
suitable runway for a landing in still air conditions; and
(b) the runway that may be required for landing because of the forecast wind
conditions, the distance required to land from
a height of 50 feet being
taken to be that appropriate to -
(i) the landing
weight;
(ii) the altitude at the aerodrome;
(iii) the temperature in the specified international standard atmosphere
appropriate to the altitude at the aerodrome;
(iv)
(aa) a level
surface in the case of runways usable in only one direction; or
(bb) the average slope of the runway in the case of runways usable in only
one direction; and
(v)
(aa) still air
conditions in the case of the most suitable runway for a landing in still air
conditions; or
(bb) not more than 50 per cent. of the forecast wind component opposite to
the direction of landing or not less than 150 per
cent. of the forecast wind
component in the direction of landing in the case of the runway that may be
required for landing
because of the forecast wind conditions.
SCHEDULE 15
Article 60
THE AIR NAVIGATION (DANGEROUS GOODS) REGULATIONS
Interpretation
1. - (1) In these Regulations
"consignment"
means one or more packages of dangerous goods accepted by an operator from
one shipper at one time and
at one address receipted for in one lot and
moving to one consignee at one destination address;
"dangerous
goods" means any article or substance which is classified in Part 2 of
the Technical Instructions;
"dangerous
goods transport document" means a document, not being an air waybill,
which is required by regulation 3
to accompany a consignment of dangerous
goods;
"package"
means the packaging and the articles and substances contained therein
including one or more packages which
have been consolidated by one shipper
into one container or enclosure for convenience in handling;
"packing"
means the art and operation whereby articles and substances are wrapped up,
enclosed in containers or otherwise
secured, and "packed" shall be
construed accordingly;
"Technical
Instructions" means the 1999-2000 English language edition of the
Technical Instructions for the Safe Transport
of Dangerous Goods by Air which
was approved and published by decision of the Council of the International
Civil Aviation Organisation;
"unit load
device" means any type of freight container including any container
designed for loading on an aircraft.
(2)
(a) Save where
the context otherwise requires any reference to:
(i) a numbered
regulation is to the regulation in these Regulations so numbered;
(ii) a numbered paragraph, or numbered or lettered sub-paragraph is a
reference to the paragraph or sub-paragraph so numbered
or lettered in the
regulation or paragraph, as the case may be, in which that reference appears.
(3) For
the avoidance of doubt, any instructions or limitations contained in the
Technical Instructions
for the carriage of dangerous goods on passenger or
cargo aircraft, as therein defined, shall for the purpose of these
Regulations
be interpreted as applying also to the carriage of such goods
beneath passenger or cargo aircraft respectively.
Carriage of dangerous goods
2. - (1) An aircraft shall not carry or
have loaded therein or suspended thereunder any
dangerous goods unless such
goods are carried, loaded or suspended:
(a) with the
written permission of the Governor and in accordance with any conditions to
which such permission may be subject;
and
(b) in accordance with the Technical Instructions and any conditions
specified therein.
(2) A
person shall not:
(a) take or
cause to be taken on board,
(b) suspend or cause to be suspended beneath, or
(c) deliver or cause to be delivered for loading on or suspension beneath
an aircraft any dangerous goods,
which he knows or ought to know or suspect to be goods capable of posing
significant risk to
health, safety or property when carried by air, unless
the Technical Instructions have been complied with and the package of those
goods is in a fit condition for carriage by air.
(3) These Regulations shall not apply to dangerous
goods of a type specified in Chapters 1.1.2(a),
1.1.2(b) and 2.3 of Part 1
and Chapter 1.2 of Part 9 of the Technical Instructions which are carried,
loaded or suspended in
accordance with the provisions of the aforesaid
Chapters 1.1.2(a), 1.1.2(b) and 2.3 of Part 1 and Chapter 1.2 of Part 9 and
which are:
(a) articles
and equipment which are required to be carried on an aircraft by or under
this Order or are otherwise intended
for use on an aircraft for the purpose
of the good order of the flight in accordance with normal practice whether or
not, in
either case, such articles and equipment are required to be carried
or intended to be used on that particular flight;
(b) solely intended for the use of passengers or crew members or for sale to
the passengers or crew members of the aircraft
during the flight in question;
(c) subject to paragraph (4) to provide during flight veterinary aid or a
humane killer for an animal; or
(d) subject to paragraph (4) to provide during flight medical aid to a
person.
(4) The
goods specified in sub-paragraphs (c) and (d) of paragraph (3) shall only be
carried if:
(a) they are or
may be required for use during the flight:
(b) they are or may be required for use during a subsequent flight by the
same aircraft and it will not be practicable to load
the goods on the
aircraft in the intervening period before the commencement of that subsequent
flight; or
(c) they were used or might have been required for use during a previous
flight by the same aircraft and it has not been practicable
to unload them
from the aircraft since that flight.
(5) Save
for regulations 2(1)(a), 6(1) (but only to the extent that it refers to the
provisions in Chapter
2.1 of Part 5 of the Technical Instructions), 6(2) and
7(3), these Regulations shall not apply to dangerous goods of the
classification
specified in Chapter 2.5 of Part 1 of the Technical Instructions:
(a) which do
not exceed the appropriate quantity limitations specified therein; and
(b) in respect of which such other conditions as are specified therein are
complied with.
Documentation
3. - (1) An aircraft shall not carry
dangerous goods as cargo unless the shipper of the
goods has furnished the
operator of the aircraft with a dangerous goods transport document, except
that such a document shall
not be required in respect of such categories of
dangerous goods as may be specified in the Technical Instructions as being
goods in respect of which a dangerous goods transport document is not
required.
(2) The dangerous goods transport document shall be
completed in duplicate by the shipper and shall:
(a) describe
the dangerous goods in accordance with and contain such information as is
required by the provisions of Chapter
4.1 of Part 4 of the Technical
Instructions;
(b) contain a signed declaration that the Technical Instructions have been
complied with in that the dangerous goods:
(i) are fully
and accurately described; and
(ii) are correctly classified, packed, marked and labelled; and
(iii) are in a proper condition for carriage by air.
(3) The
shipper of dangerous goods shall furnish the operator of the aircraft with
such other documents
in respect of dangerous goods as are required by Part 3
and Chapters 4.3 and 4.5 of Part 4 of the Technical Instructions.
(4) The operator of an aircraft shall preserve for
not less than six months any dangerous goods transport
document or other
document in respect of dangerous goods which has been furnished to him in
accordance with this regulation.
Shipper's responsibilities
4. Before consigning any package of dangerous goods
for carriage by air the shipper shall ensure that:
(a) the goods
are not of a category whose carriage by air is prohibited by the provisions
of Chapters 2.1 and 2.2 of Part 1
of the Technical Instructions;
(b) the goods are classified and packed in accordance with Chapter 2.6 of
Part 1 and Parts 2, 3 and 8 of the Technical Instructions
and the packagings
used are in accordance with such provisions of Part 7 of the Technical
Instructions as apply to the goods;
(c) the package is marked and labelled in accordance with such provisions of
Chapter 11 of Part 2 and Part 3 as relate to marking
and labelling and in
accordance with Chapters 2 and 3 of Part 4 of the Technical Instructions;
(d) the package is in a fit condition for carriage by air; and
(e) the dangerous goods transport document required by regulation 5 has been
completed and that the declaration therein has
been signed by him or on his
behalf.
Operator's responsibilities
5. - (1) The operator of an aircraft in
or under which any package of dangerous goods or
unit load device containing
dangerous goods is to be carried shall ensure by means of an inspection that:
(a) the package
is marked and labelled in accordance with the provisions of these
Regulations, such provisions of Chapter 11
of Part 2 and Part 3 as relate to
marking and labelling and Chapters 2 and 3 of Part 4 of the Technical
Instructions before
accepting the package;
(b) the package is not leaking or damaged so that the contents may escape:
(i) before
accepting the package;
(ii) before loading or causing the package to be loaded on board the aircraft
or before suspending or causing the package to
be suspended beneath the
aircraft, as the case may be;
(iii) upon unloading the package from or from beneath the aircraft;
(c) the unit
load device is free from any evidence of leakage from or damage to any
dangerous goods contained therein before
loading or causing the unit load
device to be loaded on board the aircraft or before suspending or causing the
unit load device
to be suspended beneath the aircraft, as the case may be.
(2) (a)
For the purpose of each of the inspections required by paragraphs (1)(a) and
(1)(b)(i) an acceptance
check list shall be used and the results of that
inspection shall be recorded in accordance with the form thereof.
(b) The
acceptance check list shall be in such form and shall provide for the entry
of such details as will enable the relevant
inspection to be fully and
accurately made by reference to and completion of that list.
(c) The operator of an aircraft shall preserve for not less than six months a
record of any acceptance check list completed
in accordance with this
regulation. The record may be in a legible or a non-legible form so long as
the recording is capable
of being reproduced in a legible form.
(3) The
operator shall not load or cause to be loaded on an aircraft or suspend or
cause to be suspended
beneath an aircraft any package of dangerous goods or
unit load device containing dangerous goods which on inspection is found
to
be leaking or damaged so that the contents or the dangerous goods therein may
escape or be damaged.
(4) The operator shall unload or cause to be unloaded
any package of dangerous goods which appears
to be leaking or damaged on
board or beneath an aircraft and shall ensure that other cargo or baggage
loaded on or suspended
beneath that aircraft is in a fit state for carriage
by air and has not been contaminated.
(5) The operator shall after unloading inspect for
signs of damage or contamination any part of the
aircraft, or any sling or
other apparatus which has been used to suspend goods beneath the aircraft, in
which:
(a) a unit load
device containing dangerous goods was stowed, or
(b) any damaged or leaking package of dangerous goods was loaded,
and the operator shall remove or
repair any contamination or damage.
(6) The operator of an aircraft shall not permit it
to fly for the purpose of carrying passengers or
cargo if he knows or
suspects radioactive materials to have leaked in or contaminated the aircraft
or any sling or other apparatus
attached to the aircraft unless the radiation
level resulting from the fixed contamination at any accessible surface and
the
non-fixed contamination are not more than the values specified in Chapter
3.2 of Part 5 of the Technical Instructions.
Method of loading by operator
6. - (1) The operator shall ensure that
any package containing dangerous goods is loaded,
stowed and unloaded from or
from beneath an aircraft in accordance with the provisions in Chapter 2 of
Part 5 of the Technical
Instructions which apply to that category of
dangerous goods.
(2) An aircraft shall not carry any dangerous goods
either in any compartment occupied by passengers
or in the flight crew
compartment, except in circumstances permitted by the provisions of Chapter
2.1 of Part 5 of the Technical
Instructions.
Provision of information and training programmes by operators and shippers
7. - (1) The operator of an aircraft in
which dangerous goods are to be carried shall,
before the flight begins,
provide the commander of the aircraft with written information specifying the
matters required by
the provisions of Chapter 4.1 of Part 5 of the Technical
Instructions and shall preserve a copy thereof for not less than six
months.
(2) The operator of an aircraft in which passengers
are to be carried or his agent shall notify those
passengers of the
categories of dangerous goods which may not be taken on board an aircraft
either as checked baggage or accompanying
a passenger by:
(a) providing
information with each passenger ticket sufficient in prominence for this
purpose; and
(b) displaying notices sufficient in number and prominence for this purpose:
(i) at each of
the places at an airport where the operator or his agent issues tickets or
maintains areas to assemble passengers
to board the aircraft, and
(ii) at any location where baggage is checked in.
(3) The
operator of an aircraft and a shipper of dangerous goods by air and, in each
case, any agent
thereof shall inform any of their respective employees whose
duties include a function connected with the carriage of passengers
or cargo
by air of the provisions of the Technical Instructions and for this purpose
shall establish and undertake training
programmes, as required by Chapter 1
of Part 6 of the Technical Instructions, which shall be submitted to the
Governor for
approval on such occasions as the Governor may require and which
shall be amended as the Governor may require.
Production of documents and records
8. The operator of an aircraft shall, within a
reasonable time after being requested so to do by an
authorised person, cause
to be produced to that person such of the following documents as may have
been requested by that person:
(a) the written
permission referred to in regulation 2(1);
(b) the dangerous goods transport document or other document in respect of
any dangerous goods, referred to in regulation 3;
(c) the completed acceptance check list in a legible form in respect of any
dangerous goods, referred to in regulation 5(2);
(d) a copy of the written information provided to the commander of the
aircraft in respect of any dangerous goods, referred
to in regulation 7(1);
(e) any document which relates to goods which the authorised person has
reasonable grounds to suspect may be dangerous goods
in respect of which the
provisions of these Regulations have not been complied with.
Powers in relation to enforcement
of the Regulations
9. - (1) An authorised person may
examine, take samples of and seize any goods which the
authorised person has
reasonable grounds to suspect may be dangerous goods in respect of which the
provisions of these Regulations
have not been complied with.
(2) An authorised person may open or require to be
opened any baggage or package which the authorised
person has reasonable
grounds to suspect may contain dangerous goods in respect of which the
provisions of these Regulations
have not been complied with.
(3) (a) Any sample taken or goods seized by an
authorised person under this regulation shall be retained
or detained
respectively for so long as the Governor considers necessary in all the
circumstances and shall be disposed of
in such manner as the Governor
considers appropriate in all the circumstances.
(b) Without
prejudice to the generality of sub-paragraph (a) any sample taken or goods
seized under this regulation may be retained
or detained respectively:
(i) for use as
evidence at a trial for an offence; or
(ii) for forensic examination or for investigation in connection with an
offence.
Dropping articles for
agricultural, horticultural, forestry or pollution control purposes
10. Subject to the provisions of regulation 2(1)(a)
nothing in these Regulations shall apply to any
aircraft flying in order to
drop articles for the purpose of agriculture, horticulture, forestry or
pollution control.
Police aircraft
11. - (1) Nothing in these Regulations
shall apply to the carriage of dangerous goods for
the purposes of providing
medical aid to any person by an aircraft flying under and in accordance with
the terms of a police
air operator's certificate.
(2) Nothing in these Regulations other than
regulation 2(1)(a) shall apply to the carriage of any other
dangerous goods
by an aircraft flying under and in accordance with the terms of a police air
operator's certificate.
SCHEDULE 16
Article 103
AERODROME MANUAL
Information and instructions relating to the following matters shall be
included in the aerodrome manual referred to in article
103 of this Order:
(i) the name
and status of the official in charge of day to day operation of the aerodrome
together with the names and status
of other senior aerodrome operating staff
and instructions as to the order and circumstances in which they may be
required
to act as the official in charge,
(ii) the system of aeronautical information service available;
(iii) procedures for promulgating information concerning the aerodrome's
state;
(iv) procedures for the control of access, vehicles and work in relation to
the aerodrome manoeuvring area and apron;
(v) procedures for complying with article 117 of this Order and for the
removal of disabled aircraft;
(vi) in the case of an aerodrome which has facilities for fuel storage,
procedures for complying with article 112 of this Order;
(vii) (aa) subject to sub-paragraph (bb), plans to a scale of 1:2500
depicting the layout of runways, taxiways and aprons,
aerodrome markings,
aerodrome lighting if such lighting is provided, and the siting of any
navigational aids within the runway
strip;
(bb) in the
case of copies of the manual or extracts thereof provided or made available
to a member of the aerodrome operating
staff, the plans shall be of a scale
reasonably appropriate for the purposes of article 103(10) of this Order;
(viii) in
respect of an aerodrome in relation to which there is a notified instrument
approach procedure, survey information
sufficient to provide data for the
production of aeronautical charts relating to that aerodrome;
(ix) description, height and location of obstacles which infringe standard
obstacle limitation surfaces, and whether they are
lit;
(x) data for and method of calculation of declared distances and elevations
at the beginning and end of each declared distance;
(xi) method of calculating reduced declared distances and the procedure for
their promulgation;
(xii) details of surfaces and bearing strengths of runways, taxiways and
aprons;
(xiii) the system of the management of air traffic in the airspace associated
with the aerodrome, including procedures for
the co-ordination of traffic
with adjacent aerodromes, except any such information or procedures already
published in any manual
of air traffic services;
(xiv) operational procedures for the routine and special inspection of the
aerodrome manoeuvring area and aprons;
(xv) if operations are permitted during periods of low visibility, procedures
for the protection of the runways during such
periods;
(xvi) procedures for the safe integration of all aviation activities
undertaken at the aerodrome;
(xvii) procedures for the control of bird hazards;
(xviii) procedures for the use and inspection of the aerodrome lighting
system, if such a system is provided; and
(xix) the scale of rescue, first aid and fire service facilities, the
aerodrome emergency procedures and procedures to be adopted
in the event of temporary
depletion of the rescue and fire service facilities.
SCHEDULE 17
Article 77
COSMIC RADIATION: KEEPING OF RECORDS
1. - (1) The record of the exposure to
cosmic radiation of air crew assessed under article
75 of this Order and
required to be kept under article 77(1) of this Order shall meet the
requirements of this paragraph and
in addition, as the case may be, the
requirements of either sub-paragraph (1) or sub-paragraph (2) of paragraph 2.
(2) A record kept under article 77(1) of this Order
shall contain details of the assessment of the
exposure to cosmic radiation
for a period of at least twelve months, but not details of exposure before
the coming into force
of this Order.
(3) A record kept under article 77(1) of this Order
shall be available for production as a paper record
for a period of two years
from the date each assessment was made, except that where the assessment
shows that an individual
is liable to cosmic radiation exposure in excess of
6 milliSieverts per year the record shall be available as a paper record
until whichever is the later of either -
(a) the 75th
anniversary of his birth, whether or not he has survived to that date, or
(b) the 30th anniversary of the termination of his work which involved
exposure to cosmic radiation.
2.
- (1) When an undertaking separately assesses the exposure to
cosmic radiation of the
individual members of the air crew, the undertaking
shall keep a record of the exposure to cosmic radiation for each member of
the
air crew assessed under article 75 of this Order, which record shall include:
(a) the name of
the member of crew;
(b) the detail of each assessment of exposure expressed in milliSieverts per
year; and
(c) the date of the assessment.
(2) When
an undertaking does not separately assess the exposure to cosmic radiation of
the individual
members of the air crew, but instead assesses the exposure to
cosmic radiation of groups of air crew members the undertaking shall
keep a
single record for all the air crew assessed under article 75 of this Order,
which record shall state:
(a) the names
of all air crew covered by the assessment;
(b) the maximum dose of cosmic radiation expressed in milliSieverts per year
to which those air crew are liable to be exposed;
(c) how the dose in paragraph (b) is calculated; and
(d) the period for which the assessment is valid.
SCHEDULE 18
Article 128
TERRITORIES TO WHICH THIS ORDER APPLIES
Anguilla
Bermuda
British Antarctic Territory
British Indian Ocean Territory
Cayman Islands
Falkland Islands
Montserrat
Pitcairn, Henderson, Ducie and Oeno Islands
St. Helena St. Helena Dependencies (Tristan da Cunha
and Ascension Island)
South Georgia and the South Sandwich Islands
Sovereign Base Areas of Akrotiri and Dhekelia
Turks and Caicos Islands
Virgin Islands
TABLE OF COMPARISON
The following Table shows, in relation to each article of the Air Navigation
(Overseas Territories) Order 1989, as amended,
the article of the 2001 Order
in which it is reproduced.
|
1989 Order as
amended
|
2001 Order
|
|
1
|
1
|
|
2
|
2
|
|
3
|
3
|
|
4
|
4
|
|
5
|
5
|
|
6
|
6
|
|
-
|
7
|
|
7
|
8
|
|
8
|
9
|
|
9
|
10
|
|
10
|
11
|
|
11
|
12
|
|
12
|
13
|
|
13
|
14
|
|
14
|
15
|
|
-
|
16
|
|
15
|
17
|
|
16
|
18
|
|
17
|
19
|
|
18
|
20
|
|
19
|
21
|
|
20
|
22 23 24 25 26
|
|
21
|
27
|
|
22
|
28
|
|
23
|
29
|
|
24
|
30
|
|
25
|
31
|
|
-
|
32
|
|
26
|
33
|
|
27
|
34
|
|
28
|
35
|
|
29
|
36
|
|
-
|
37
|
|
30
|
38
|
|
31
|
39
|
|
31A
|
40
|
|
32
|
41
|
|
33
|
42
|
|
33A
|
43
|
|
34
|
44 45
|
|
35
|
46
|
|
36
|
47 48 49
|
|
36A
|
50
|
|
36B
|
51
|
|
-
|
52
|
|
37
|
53
|
|
38
|
54
|
|
39
|
55
|
|
40
|
56
|
|
41
|
57
|
|
42
|
58
|
|
43
|
59
|
|
44
|
60
|
|
45
|
61
|
|
46
|
62
|
|
47
|
63
|
|
48
|
64
|
|
49
|
65
|
|
50
|
66
|
|
51
|
67
|
|
-
|
68
|
|
52
|
69
|
|
-
|
70
|
|
53
|
71
|
|
54
|
72
|
|
55
|
73
|
|
56
|
74
|
|
-
|
75
|
|
57
|
76
|
|
58
|
77
|
|
59
|
78
|
|
60
|
79
|
|
61
|
80
|
|
62
|
81
|
|
62A
|
82
|
|
63
|
83
|
|
64
|
84
|
|
64A
|
88 90
|
|
64B
|
91
|
|
65
|
92 98
|
|
66
|
94 99
|
|
66A
|
97
|
|
67
|
100
|
|
68
|
95
|
|
68A
|
96
|
|
69
|
85
|
|
70
|
86
|
|
-
|
87
|
|
-
|
89
|
|
-
|
93
|
|
71
|
101
|
|
72
|
102
|
|
73
|
103
|
|
74
|
104
|
|
75
|
105
|
|
76
|
106
|
|
77
|
107
|
|
78
|
108
|
|
79
|
109
|
|
80
|
110
|
|
81
|
111
|
|
82
|
112
|
|
83
|
113
|
|
94
|
125
|
|
83A
|
-
|
|
-
|
114
|
|
84
|
115
|
|
85
|
116
|
|
86
|
117
|
|
87
|
118
|
|
88
|
119
|
|
89
|
120
|
|
90
|
121
|
|
91
|
122
|
|
92
|
123
|
|
93
|
124
|
|
95
|
126
|
|
96
|
127
|
|
97
|
128
|
|
98
|
129
|
|
99
|
130
|
|
99A
|
131
|
|
100
|
132
|
|
101
|
133
|
|
102
|
134
|
|
-
|
135
|
|
-
|
|
EXPLANATORY
NOTE
(This note is not part of the Order)
This Order, except as regards Gibraltar, supersedes the Air Navigation
(Overseas Territories) Order 1989 (S.I. 1989/2395),
as amended (S.I.
1991/189, S.I. 1991/1697, S.I. 1992/3198, S.I. 1995/2701 and S.I. 1997/1746).
The Order is based closely on the Air Navigation Order 2000 (S.I. 2000/1562).
The main differences between this Order and the Air Navigation Order are,
first, that some of the provisions of the Air Navigation
Order which reflect
obligations of the United Kingdom as a member of the European Union and as a
member of the Joint Aviation
Authorities (JAA) are not reproduced in this
Order. Secondly, this Order contains the Rules of the Air (Schedule 13), the
Air
Navigation (General) Regulations (Schedule 14), the Air Navigation (Dangerous
Goods) Regulations (Schedule 15) and the Air Navigation
(Cosmic Radiation)
(Keeping of Records) Regulations (Schedule 17) instead of these being
prescribed by the Secretary of State
as in the United Kingdom.
The Table of Comparison specifies the corresponding article numbers of the
Air Navigation (Overseas Territories) Order 1989,
as amended.
In addition to some minor drafting amendments, the following changes are
made:
(1) Mortgagees under aircraft mortgages registered
pursuant to local legislation are protected from
aircraft being removed from
the aircraft register of the Territory (article 4(17)).
(2) A requirement has been introduced for aircraft in
the service of the police to be operated in accordance
with a police air
operator's certificate and special provision is made for aircraft flying in
accordance with a police air
operator's certificate (articles 7,
20(3)(b)(iii) and (c)(iii), 31, 32, 33, 36(5)(c) and (d) (6)(b) and (8),
38(2), 42(2),
44(2), 45(1), 57(1) and (4) 59, 61(3), 101, Schedule 4
paragraph 10 of the Table and paragraph 5 Scale EE, Schedule 13 rules 5
and
17, Schedule 14 regulations 12 and 13 and Schedule 15 regulation 11).
(3) Responsibilities in respect of airworthiness,
radio equipment, radio licensing and flight crew
licensing in connection with
an aircraft may be discharged by the State of the operator rather than its
State of registration
in certain circumstances pursuant to Article 83 bis of
the Chicago Convention (articles 8(1), 15(1), 21(3), 46(1) and 130(1)).
(4) An aircraft registered in the Territory which has
a certificate of airworthiness in the private
category must be maintained in
accordance with an approved maintenance schedule (article 10(1)).
(5) A technical log must be preserved for 2 years
after the aircraft to which it relates has been destroyed
or withdrawn from
use (article 11(5)).
(6) It is an offence for the holder of an aircraft
maintenance engineer's licence to exercise the privileges
of that licence
when physically or mentally unfit or under the influence of drink or a drug
(article 13(7) and (8)).
(7) Minimum equipment requirements enable the
Governor to give permission for an aircraft to fly notwithstanding
that
specified equipment is not carried or is unserviceable (articles 16 and
43(b)(ii) and Schedules 10 and 11).
(8) A helicopter which is registered in the Territory
and which has a maximum total weight authorised
of 5,700 kg or less and a
maximum approved seating configuration of 9 or less when flying according to
Instrument Flight Rules
or at night must either carry 2 pilots or be equipped
with an autopilot. A helicopter flying for the purpose of public transport
at
night with visual ground reference must be appropriately equipped depending
on whether it is flying with one or two pilots.
Every pilot included in the
flight crew of a helicopter flying for the purpose of public transport whose
licence does not include
an instrument rating but who is intended to fly at
night under visual flight conditions must be tested by the operator as to his
competence (article 20 and Schedules 4 and 10).
(9) When flying over an area specified in the Order
without a flight navigator, suitable navigational
equipment must be carried
but this equipment is no longer required to be approved by the Governor
(article 20(4)).
(10) Provision for three categories of licence
(Flight Radio Telephony Operator's General Licence,
Flight Radio Telegraphy
Operator's Licence and Flight Radio Telegraphy Operator's Temporary Licence) are
removed from the Order
and the remaining licence is renamed Flight
Radiotelephony Operator's Licence. The minimum age for holding a Flight
Radiotelephony
Operator's Licence is 16 years. A flight radiotelephony
operator may now perform other duties on the flight (article 20(5), 130(1)
and Schedule 8).
(11) The minimum age for flying solo is 16 years
(article 21(2)(b)).
(12) The circumstances in which a person may act as a
member of the flight crew of an aircraft without
holding an appropriate licence
for the purpose of qualifying for a licence or rating are extended, though
flights can no longer
be undertaken under article 21(5) on the basis of a
validated foreign licence (article 21(2)(c), (d) and (e) and (5)).
(13) A glider pilot communicating by radio with an
air traffic control unit must hold an appropriate
flight radiotelephony
operator's licence (article 21(2) and (9)).
(14) A licence granted under the law of a Contracting
State other than the Territory is no longer deemed
to be rendered valid for
purposes of entitling the holder to fly in any controlled airspace in
circumstances requiring compliance
with the Instrument Flight Rules (article
21(4)(b)).
(15) The distinction between medical examinations
conducted inside and outside the Territory has been
removed (article 25(1)).
(16) The operator of an aircraft flying for the
purpose of public transport must satisfy himself as
to the suitability of any
site at which it is intended to take off or land. He need not generally satisfy
himself about the
adequacy of emergency services which are not required to be
based at the site but such a requirement may be imposed by way of
a condition
of the air operator's certificate (article 34(1)(c) and (2)).
(17) An aeroplane which is not registered in the
Territory and is powered by one engine only may not
fly for the purpose of
public transport at night or when weather conditions are below specified
minima (article 37).
(18) The operator of a public transport aircraft
which is not registered in the Territory is no longer
required to furnish to
the Governor particulars of aerodrome operating minima. The operator of any
such aircraft requires approval
from the Governor to conduct aircraft
operations to Category II and III minima (article 39).
(19) The requirement for passenger briefing by the
commander of an aircraft now applies to all aircraft
registered in the
Territory other than those flying in accordance with a police air operator's
certificate (article 44).
(20) The requirement to maintain a telecommunications
log is omitted (article 46 and Schedule 11).
(21) An aircraft may not fly within airspace notified
as reduced vertical separation minimum airspace
unless it is equipped with
appropriate height keeping equipment which, in the case of an aircraft
registered in the Territory,
must be installed, maintained and operated in a
manner approved by the Governor (articles 48, 49 and 130).
(22) From January 2003, an airborne collision
avoidance system which meets specified requirements must
be carried by a
turbine engined aircraft with a maximum take off weight authorised exceeding
15,000 kg or authorised to carry
more than 30 passengers if registered in or
flying within the Territory (article 52, Schedule 5 and Schedule 10).
(23) A definition of sporting weapon is now provided
(article 59).
(24) The requirement to obey all lawful commands of
the commander is extended to persons in an aircraft
not registered in the
Territory while the aircraft is in the Territory (article 67).
(25) It is an offence to act in a disruptive manner
while in an aircraft, including using threatening
language towards a member
of the crew of the aircraft or behaving in a disorderly manner towards a
member of the crew of the
aircraft (article 58).
(26) Flying displays now require the permission of
the Governor (article 70 and Schedule 13 rule 5).
(27) An undertaking in the Territory which operates
aircraft must assess the exposure to cosmic radiation
of the air crew who are
liable to be subject to cosmic radiation in excess of 1 milliSievert per
year, to take account of the
assessed exposure when organising work
schedules, to inform workers of the health risks, to make additional
provision for air
crew who are pregnant or breast feeding, to keep a record
of assessed exposure to cosmic radiation and to provide the record on
request
to the Governor and the air crew concerned (articles 75 and 77 and Schedule
17).
(28) The operator of an aircraft with a certificate
of airworthiness in the transport or aerial work
category must produce the
technical log and certificate of maintenance review of that aircraft if
required to do so by an authorised
person (article 78(2)).
(29) The Governor, as well as the Secretary of State,
now has power to revoke, suspend or vary permissions
granted under article
115 with respect to aerial photography, aerial survey or aerial work in
aircraft registered elsewhere
than in the Territory (article 81).
(30) The restrictions applicable to flights by
balloons, kites, airships, gliders and parascending
parachutes have been
revised. New definitions are introduced for controllable and uncontrollable
balloons and for free controlled
flight, tethered flight, captive flight and
released flight. Restrictions are placed on the simultaneous release of large
numbers
of small balloons from a single site (articles 86 and 130).
(31) A person flying a small aircraft (for which a
definition has been introduced) which weighs more
than 7 kg must do so in
accordance with specified conditions (articles 87, 130 and 132).
(32) A person must not provide an air traffic control
service otherwise than in accordance with a manual
of air traffic services
which must be produced to the Governor on request and amended if so required
by him (article 89).
(33) The provisions concerning the licensing of
persons providing air traffic services entitle the
Governor to require
applicants for licences to undertake courses of training and to approve such
courses. An air traffic controller's
licence may now be granted to a person
who has attained the age of 20 years. A certificate of competence is required
to be
included in an air traffic controller's licence and renewed annually. A
new rating is introduced for the exercise of licence privileges
at an area
control centre (formerly called an air traffic control centre). A new rating
is introduced for the task of providing
radar services to en route aircraft
more than 40 miles from an aerodrome. Only specifically approved licence
holders are entitled
to supervise student air traffic controllers or air
traffic controllers who do not hold an appropriate rating. Definitions are
introduced for an aerodrome control service, an approach control service, an
area control service and an area control centre.
"Sector" has been
redefined. An area control rating and an area radar rating are introduced.
The area radar control
(aerodrome) rating and the precision approach control
rating are deleted. To provide radar services to en route aircraft more
than
40 miles from the aerodrome at which the controller is based a controller
will require an area radar rating. The functions
of the area radar control
and the approach radar control rating may be exercised at the same time (Part
IX, article 130 and
Schedule 9).
(34) An amendment is made to make it clear that an
air traffic controller's licence is not required
by members of HM Forces or a
visiting force (article 94(5)).
(35) If a flight information service officer does not
provide a service at a particular aerodrome or
area control centre throughout
a period of 90 days, his licence shall cease to be valid at that aerodrome or
area control centre
(article 98(3)).
(36) The Governor can no longer require an aerodrome
to have a licence for public use (article 103(3)).
(37) Provision has been made for the Secretary of
State to delegate to the Governor the power to approve
and disapprove tariffs
for services operated to or from the Territory by aircraft not registered in
the Territories or in the
United Kingdom (article 114).
(38) The requirement for mandatory reporting of
occurrences applies to the operator or commander of
any public transport
aircraft registered in the Territory, any public transport aircraft wherever
registered operated by the
holder of an air operator's certificate granted by
the Governor and any aircraft registered in the Territory which is powered
by
one or more turbine engines; a serious incident reported under accident
investigation regulations in force in the Territory
does not constitute a
reportable occurrence for purposes of article 117 (article 117).
(39) The charterer of an aircraft is added to the
list of persons referred to in article 122 (Penalties)
insofar as that
article concerns article 113 of the Order (Restrictions with respect to
carriage for valuable consideration
in aircraft registered outside the
Territory); the penalties on summary conviction have been increased to a
maximum of 5000
for an offence in Part B of Schedule 12, 2,500 for an
offence in Part A of that Schedule and 1,000 for any other offence (article
122).
(40) The Governor can no longer grant exemptions from
the provisions of article 116 of the Order relating
to flights over a foreign
country (article 126).
(41) An air transport undertaking is now defined as
an undertaking whose business includes flying for
purposes of public
transport (article 130(1)).
(42) A flight information service includes the
granting or refusing of permission to an aircraft to
taxi on the apron or the
manoeuvring area of an aerodrome or to a vehicle or person to go on the
manoeuvring area of an aerodrome
(article 130(1)).
(43) Crew is now defined as being the flight crew,
cabin attendants and persons carried on the flight
deck to supervise
training, experience, practice and periodical tests required of the flight
crew (article 130(1));
(44) The definition of "Governor" has been
amended to include (for purposes other than making
rules and regulations
under the Order and designating customs and excise aerodromes) any person
appointed by the Governor as
Director of Civil Aviation responsible under the
law of the Territory on behalf of the Governor for the administration of the
Order (article 130(1));
(45) Valuable consideration passing wholly within a
group of companies is disregarded for the purpose
of considering whether a
flight is for the purpose of public transport (article 131(5)).
(46) The Governor must now publish the requirements
which must be met by the applicant for a licence,
certificate or other
document if the applicant is to satisfy the Governor that he meets the
criteria for the grant of the licence
certificate or other document (article
135);
(47) Powered lift (tilt rotor) aircraft are now
included in the table of general classification of
aircraft (Schedule 2 Part
A);
(48) The purposes for which aircraft may fly in
accordance with A and B Conditions are extended and
clarified (Schedule 3
Part A);
(49) Aeroplanes registered in the Territory that are
powered by one or more turbine jets or by one
or more turbine propeller
engines must be equipped with a terrain awareness and warning system:
by the
date of coming into force of the Order if first issued with a certificate of
airworthiness on
or after 1st July 2001, operating for the purpose of public
transport, and weighing more than 15,000 kg or certificated to carry
more
than 30 passengers;
by 1st October 2001 if weighing more than 5,700 kg
or certificated to carry more than 9 passengers,
whether or not flying for
the purpose of public transport if not equipped with a ground proximity
warning system before 1st
April 2000;
by 1st January 2005 if weighing more than 5,700 kg
or certificated to carry more than 9 passengers,
whether or not operating for
the purpose of public transport if equipped with a ground proximity warning
system before 1st
April 2000 (Schedule 4).
(50)
Controlled airspace is no longer sub-divided for the purposes of Schedules 4
and 5 (carriage of
aircraft equipment and radio navigation equipment).
Equipment requirements now apply equally in respect of all controlled
airspace.
A non-public transport aircraft flying in Class D or Class E
airspace is not required to carry distance measuring equipment (Schedules
4
and 5).
(51) A glider must carry radiocommunications
equipment when flying above Flight Level 245 or in controlled
airspace below
Flight Level 245 notified for the purpose (Schedule 5, Table at paragraph 2).
(52) The holder of a Private Pilot's Licence or Basic
Commercial Pilot's Licence who has neither an
instrument rating nor an
Instrument Meteorological Conditions rating may not fly on a flight outside
controlled airspace when
the flight visibility is less than 3 km (Schedule 8
Part A Privileges of Private Pilot's Licence and Basic Commercial Pilot's
Licence).
(53) Changes are made to the privileges of Territory
aeroplane and helicopter pilot's licences. Recent
experience of night take
offs and landings is required only for flights in which passengers are
carried. A recency requirement
is introduced for flights by day on which
passengers may be carried. The 20,000 kg limit for holders of Commercial
Pilot's
Licence (Aeroplanes) and (Helicopters and Gyroplanes) and Airline
Transport Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) and (Helicopters and
Gyroplanes) over
age 60 is removed. Co-pilots of helicopters flying on scheduled journeys or
for public transport in instrument
meteorological conditions must hold an
instrument rating (Schedule 8).
(54) A separate private pilot's licence is introduced
for helicopters and for gyroplanes rather than
a single combined licence
(Schedule 8).
(55) An operator's Operations Manual must now include
a statement of the operator's accident prevention
and flight safety programme
and safety policy, together with a list of the post holders responsible for
ensuring that the operator's
safety policy is fulfilled, showing the duties
of each post holder in relation to that policy (Schedule 10, Part A).
(56) Schedule 13, which sets out the Rules of the Air
has been amended: rule 1 now includes a definition
of "Special VFR
Flight"; rule 23 imposes speed restrictions on aircraft flying below
Flight Level 100; rule 24(3)
provides that when taking off or approaching to
land at an aerodrome within Class B, C or D airspace, any visibility
communicated
to the commander of the aeroplane by the appropriate air traffic
control unit shall be taken to be the flight visibility; rule
27 requires a
VFR flight plan to be filed and an air traffic clearance to be obtained;
rules 35 and 36 provide that permission
required by an aircraft to taxi on
the apron or the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome or by a vehicle or person
to go or move
on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome may be obtained from
the aerodrome flight information service unit; rules 27(3) and 31(3)
require
flight plans for flight within Territory RVSM airspace to state whether the
aircraft is equipped with height keeping
performance systems required by
article 48 and 49; provision is no longer made for warning signals to be made
to aircraft in
flight by projectiles discharged from the ground (Schedule
13).
(57) Schedule 14, which sets out the Air Navigation
(General) Regulations, has been amended: Regulation
2 introduces new notional
passenger and crew weights for aeroplanes and helicopters of all sizes; for
aircraft with 30 or more
passenger seats, there is an option to use "all
adult" notional weights; the notional weights differ from holiday
charter to non-holiday charter flights; hand baggage is included with the new
notional weights; new notional hold baggage weights
are introduced; notional
hold baggage weights are only available for aircraft with 20 or more
passenger seats; the co-ordinates
defining Europe have been amended;
regulation 20 prescribes requirements which must be met by an airborne
collision avoidance
system carried in accordance with the Order (Schedule
14).
(58) Schedule 15, which sets out the Air Navigation
(Dangerous Goods) Regulations has been amended;
in regulation 1,
"dangerous goods" is defined by reference only to the definition in
the Technical Instructions and
the definition of "Technical
Instructions" now refers to the 1999-2000 English language edition of
the Technical
Instructions for the Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air
approved and published by decision of the Council of the International
Civil
Aviation Organisation (Schedule 15).
Copies of the 1999-2000 English language edition of the Technical
Instructions for the Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by
Air can be
purchased from Freight Merchandising Services, Unit 19, Ashford Industrial
Estate, Shield Road, Ashford, Middlesex,
TW15 1AU, England.
Notes:
[1] 1949 c. 67.back
[2] S.I. 1969/592.back
[3] S.I. 2001/1452.back
[4] 1890 c. 39.back
[5] 1982 c. 16.back
[6] 1982 c. 16.back
[7] S.I. 1969/592.back
[8] S.I. 2001/1452.back
[9] 1948 c. 56.back
[10] 1949 c. 67.back
[11] 1982 c. 16.back
[12] 1981 c. 61, as amended by S.I. 1983/892; S.I.
1983/1699; the Brunei and Maldives Act 1985 section 1 and Schedule paragraph
8; S.I. 1989/1331; S.I. 1990/1502 and S.I. 1998/3161.back
[13] 1974 c. 39.back
[14] 1989 c. 40.back
[15] 1995 c. 21.back
[16] 1974 c. 39.back
[17] 1964 c. 5.back
[18] Fourth edition published in October 1990 by
Civil Aviation Authority.back
[19] S.I. 1954/636.back
[20] 1952 c. 67.back
[21] 1978 c. 30.back
[22] 1985 c. 6 as amended by section 144 of the
Companies Act 1989 (c. 40).back
[23] * For the purpose of this Table, flying time
shall be calculated on the assumption that the aircraft is flying in still
air at the speed specified in the relevant certificate of airworthiness as
the speed for compliance with regulations governing
flights over water.back
[24] * For the purpose of this Table, flying time
shall be calculated on the assumption that the aircraft is flying in still
air at the speed specified in the relevant certificate of airworthiness as
the speed for compliance with regulations governing
flights over water.back
[25] S.I. 1980/538.back
ISBN 0 11 029568 4
|